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Unit 4: Business Finance mind map

Unit 4 of UGC NET Commerce is the calculation unit. Many questions give you a few numbers and ask for a cost of capital, a payback period, a share price or a leverage figure. Others ask for a theory name, a list of assumptions or the order of steps. This map teaches both. Each concept gives the formula in crisp steps, a plain explanation, a worked example with the numbers, a table of formulas or facts to remember, and a short self-test. Everything comes from past UGC NET Commerce papers.

8Branches
16Topics
54Concepts
180Past questions in this unit

Short of time? Start with Capital budgeting. It carries the most questions (34). Use the Revision sheet tab for a fast read the night before the exam.

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💼 Finance basics, sources and time value

The aims of financial management, the long-term sources a firm can use, and the time value of money formulas.

In the question bank: 26 questions from 10 of 16 exam sessions, 2019–2025.

Financial decisions and objectives

Financial decisions and the aim of wealth maximisation

Finance has three decisions: invest, finance and distribute. The best aim is wealth (value) maximisation, not profit maximisation.

  • Investment: what to buy. Financing: how to raise funds, including capital structure and leverage.
  • Dividend decision: how much profit to pay out.
  • Wealth is the present value of all expected future cash flows.

Profit can be shaped by accounting choices. Cash is real. Present value also brings in timing and risk. That is why value maximisation is the most persuasive and lasting aim.

DecisionQuestion it answers
InvestmentWhich assets to buy
FinancingHow to raise funds, which mix
DividendHow much to pay out
AimWealth maximisation
Test yourself: How is the value of a firm measured under wealth maximisation?
  1. Last year's profit
  2. All future profits
  3. Present value of profits
  4. Present value of all expected future cash flows

Answer: D. Wealth is the present value of all expected future cash flows.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the objective of financial decisions (October 2020), the measure of wealth (November 2021) and capital structure as a financing decision (June 2019).
Remember: Value is the present value of future cash flows.

Sustainable growth rate and flotation costs

The sustainable growth rate is the growth a firm can fund from its own profits. Flotation costs are the expenses of issuing new securities.

  • Sustainable growth = return on equity x retention ratio.
  • Retention ratio = 1 - dividend payout ratio.
  • Flotation costs: legal fees, administrative expenses, brokerage, underwriting.
  • A risk premium is not a flotation cost.

If ROE is 30 per cent and payout is 40 per cent, retention is 60 per cent. Growth is 30 x 0.6 = 18 per cent. The firm can grow at that rate without new equity or a change in leverage.

Example: ROE is 30 per cent and payout is 40 per cent. Retention is 60 per cent. Sustainable growth is 18 per cent.
TermFormula or meaning
Sustainable growthROE x retention ratio
Retention ratio1 - payout ratio
Flotation costLegal, brokerage, underwriting, administrative
Test yourself: Return on equity is 30 per cent and dividend payout is 40 per cent. What is the sustainable growth rate?
  1. 12 per cent
  2. 18 per cent
  3. 30 per cent
  4. 40 per cent

Answer: B. 30 x 0.60 = 18 per cent.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on sustainable growth (November 2021) and on the items of flotation cost (November 2021). Also on return on capital (June 2023).
Remember: Growth = ROE x retention.

Private equity, venture capital and mezzanine capital

Private equity and venture capital invest in companies outside the public markets. Mezzanine capital sits between debt and equity.

  • Venture capital funds young firms. Private equity funds established firms, often for restructuring.
  • Mezzanine capital: subordinated debt or preferred equity.
  • The main advantage of venture capital is expertise and guidance.

Both are set up as independent pools of capital and face few regulations. But using the money for financial or operating restructuring is typical of private equity, not venture capital. Venture capital usually means giving up some ownership.

SourceIdea
Venture capitalEarly-stage startups, expertise
Private equityEstablished firms, restructuring
Mezzanine capitalBetween debt and equity
GDRShares held by a custodian, receipts abroad
Test yourself: What is the main advantage of raising capital through venture capital?
  1. Avoiding any loss of control
  2. Low cost funds
  3. Very long term money
  4. Access to expertise and guidance

Answer: D. Venture capitalists bring advice and contacts as well as money.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on uncommon features (June 2023), a match of mezzanine, private equity and GDR (October 2020) and the advantage of venture capital (June 2025). Also on a private equity case (December 2023).
Remember: Venture builds young firms. Private equity reworks established ones.

Long-term sources: preference shares, ECB, GDR and bonds

A firm can raise long-term funds in India and abroad. Preference shares have a legal maximum tenure.

  • Preference shares in India: maximum 20 years (30 for infrastructure).
  • ECB: external commercial borrowing, a long-term source.
  • GDR: issued abroad against shares held by a custodian.
  • Eurobonds, global bonds and Yankee bonds are international bonds.

GDR steps: registration, regulatory approval, appointment of custodian and vesting of shares, GDR allotment, listing. A Yankee bond is denominated in US dollars and issued in the USA. A Eurobond is issued outside the country of its currency.

ItemFact
Preference shares in IndiaUp to 20 years
ECBForeign long-term loan
Yankee bondDollar bond issued in the USA
EurobondIssued outside the currency's country
Test yourself: What is the maximum period for which a company in India can issue preference shares?
  1. 10 years
  2. 15 years
  3. 20 years
  4. Unlimited

Answer: C. Section 55 of the Companies Act, 2013 sets a 20-year limit.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on preference share tenure (October 2022), ECB (October 2020), the GDR process (October 2022) and international bonds (March 2023).
Remember: GDR steps: register, approve, custodian, allot, list.

Off-balance sheet finance, green bonds and bond rates

Some funds do not show as a liability. Bond interest depends mainly on credit rating.

  • Off-balance sheet: securitisation, factoring, forfaiting, operating lease.
  • Credit rating is not a source of finance.
  • Green bonds raise funds for green projects. The main concern is limited investor demand.
  • A bond's interest rate depends mainly on its credit rating.

A higher rating means lower default risk, so investors accept a lower rate. The interest rate on government securities sets the base. The company's rating adds the spread.

SourceOff balance sheet?
SecuritisationYes
Factoring and forfaitingYes
Operating leaseYes
Credit ratingNot a source of finance
Test yourself: Which factor most affects the interest rate of a corporate bond?
  1. Credit rating of the bond
  2. Number of projects completed
  3. Level of FDI
  4. Dividend history

Answer: A. A higher credit rating lowers the rate.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on off-balance sheet sources (March 2023), green bonds (June 2025) and the factor that sets bond interest (June 2025).
Remember: Rating sets the spread on a bond.

Short-term sources of finance

Short-term sources fund working capital. Long-term sources fund fixed assets and permanent needs.

  • Commercial paper, factoring and a line of credit are short term.
  • External commercial borrowing is long term.
  • Trade credit and bank credit are common short-term sources.

Match the period of the source to the period of the need. Short-term funds are cheaper but must be renewed. Using them for fixed assets creates liquidity risk.

SourcePeriod
Commercial paperShort term
FactoringShort term
Line of creditShort term
External commercial borrowingLong term
Test yourself: Which of the following is a long-term source of finance?
  1. External commercial borrowing
  2. Commercial paper
  3. Factoring
  4. Line of credit

Answer: A. ECB is a long-term loan from foreign lenders.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on which of the options is a long-term source (October 2020).
Remember: CP, factoring and line of credit are short term. ECB is long term.

Time value of money

Present value, future value and annuities

Money today is worth more than the same money later because it can earn interest. Present and future value formulas link the two.

  • Future value = cash flow x (1 + r)^t.
  • Present value = cash flow / (1 + r)^t.
  • Annuity: equal payments each period. Perpetuity: equal payments forever.
  • Present value of a perpetuity = cash flow / discount rate.

Compounding goes forward in time. Discounting goes backward. An annuity uses tables: FVIFA for future value and PVIFA for present value. A payment of Rs 1,000 every year for ever at 10 per cent is worth Rs 10,000 today.

Example: Rs 1,000 a year for ever at 10 per cent: present value is 1,000 / 0.10 = Rs 10,000.
TermFormula
Future valueCash flow x (1 + r)^t
Present valueCash flow / (1 + r)^t
FV of annuityR x FVIFA
PV of annuityR x PVIFA
PV of perpetuityCash flow / r
Test yourself: What is an infinite series of equal cash flows at regular intervals called?
  1. Annuity
  2. Annuity due
  3. Perpetuity
  4. Future value

Answer: C. Perpetuity has no end.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the time value concept (January 2025), a match of formulas (June 2025) and perpetuity (December 2025).
Remember: Compound forward, discount backward.

The rule of 72 and the rule of 69

The doubling time of money can be estimated by a rule of thumb. The rule depends on how interest is compounded.

  • Rule of 72 for discrete (yearly) compounding.
  • Rule of 69 (more precisely 69.3) for continuous compounding.
  • Doubling time = 72 / rate in per cent.

At 8 per cent a year, money doubles in about 72 / 8 = 9 years. The number 69.3 comes from the natural log of 2. For discrete compounding, 72 is a better fit because it has more divisors.

Example: At 12 per cent a year, money doubles in 72 / 12 = 6 years.
CompoundingRule
ContinuousRule of 69 (69.3)
DiscreteRule of 72
Test yourself: At 9 per cent yearly compounding, about how long does money take to double?
  1. 6 years
  2. 8 years
  3. 9 years
  4. 12 years

Answer: B. 72 / 9 = 8 years.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked as a rule of thumb in discrete compounding (October 2020).
Remember: Discrete means 72. Continuous means 69.
🏗️ Capital budgeting

How a firm judges long-term projects: payback, accounting rate of return, NPV, IRR, profitability index, and the problems when they disagree.

In the question bank: 34 questions from 14 of 16 exam sessions, 2018–2025.

Methods and calculations

The capital budgeting process

Capital budgeting follows a fixed order, from finding an idea to reviewing its performance. NPV needs cash flows and a discount rate first.

  • Identify the proposal, screen it, evaluate it, select it, implement it, review it.
  • NPV steps: forecast cash flows, find the discount rate, compute present values, compute NPV, rank.
  • Multinational steps: net outlay, net cash flows, discount rate, evaluation technique.

You cannot choose a project until its NPV is known. NPV needs a discount rate. The discount rate needs cash flows. So the order is fixed. Many exam sequences use slight wording changes.

OrderStep
1Project generation / identification
2Preliminary screening
3Detailed evaluation
4Selection and implementation
5Control and performance review
Test yourself: In evaluating a project by NPV, which step comes right after forecasting cash flows?
  1. Compute NPV
  2. Rank projects
  3. Identify an appropriate discount rate
  4. Calculate present values

Answer: C. The discount rate is needed to find present values.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the process in seven forms (October 2020 to December 2025), NPV steps (October 2022, January 2025) and multinational steps (June 2025).
Remember: Generate, screen, evaluate, select, implement, review.

Payback period

Payback period is the time taken to recover the initial outlay. It cares about recovery of cost, not profit.

  • It ignores cash flows after the payback point.
  • It ignores the time value of money.
  • It suits over-leveraged firms and uncertain markets.

Add the yearly inflows until they equal the outlay. If the last year is only part-used, take a fraction. Payback is not a discounted method and does not measure profitability.

Example: Outlay is Rs 18,500. Inflows are Rs 8,000, 6,000, 4,000, 2,000 and 2,000. After 3 years Rs 18,000 is back. Rs 500 remains. Year 4 gives Rs 2,000, so 500 / 2,000 = 0.25 years. Payback is 3.25 years.
YearCumulative inflow
1Rs 8,000
2Rs 14,000
3Rs 18,000
4Rs 20,000
Test yourself: A project costs Rs 18,500. Inflows are 8,000, 6,000, 4,000, 2,000, 2,000. What is the payback period?
  1. 3.25 years
  2. 3.5 years
  3. 4 years
  4. 4.25 years

Answer: A. Rs 18,000 is back in 3 years. The last Rs 500 takes a quarter of year 4.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on a payback calculation (January 2025), when to use it (October 2020) and as a true statement (December 2019).
Remember: Payback is about getting your money back fast.

Accounting rate of return

ARR is average profit after tax divided by average investment. It uses accounting profit, not cash flow.

  • ARR = average annual profit after tax / average investment x 100.
  • Average investment = salvage value + half of (cost - salvage value).
  • Profits given after depreciation and tax are used as they are.

First find the average profit. If earnings are before depreciation and tax, deduct depreciation and then tax. Then find the average investment. With no salvage value, it is half the cost.

Example: Cost Rs 40,000, no salvage. Earnings before depreciation and tax total Rs 72,000. Depreciation total is Rs 40,000, leaving Rs 32,000. Tax at 50 per cent leaves Rs 16,000 profit. Average yearly profit is Rs 3,200. Average investment is Rs 20,000. ARR is 16 per cent.
ItemFormula
Average profitTotal profit after tax / years
Average investmentSalvage + half of (cost - salvage)
ARRAverage profit / average investment
Test yourself: Project cost Rs 40,000, no salvage. Average yearly profit after tax is Rs 3,200. What is the ARR?
  1. 8 per cent
  2. 10 per cent
  3. 16 per cent
  4. 32 per cent

Answer: C. Average investment is Rs 20,000. So 3,200 / 20,000 = 16 per cent.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on ARR calculations (October 2022, November 2021).
Remember: Average profit over average investment.

Net present value and profitability index

NPV is the present value of inflows minus the present value of outflows. The profitability index is their ratio.

  • NPV positive: accept. It adds to shareholders' wealth.
  • PI = present value of inflows / present value of outflows.
  • PI above 1 means NPV is positive.
  • NPV satisfies the value additivity principle.

NPV gives an absolute rupee gain. It considers all cash flows and the time value of money. It gives less weight to distant receipts, not more. PI is the same idea as a ratio.

Example: Present value of inflows is Rs 1,20,000 and of outflows Rs 1,00,000. NPV is Rs 20,000 and PI is 1.2.
Common trap: NPV does not give more weight to future receipts. It discounts them.
MeasureRule
NPVPV of inflows - PV of outflows
PIPV of inflows / PV of outflows
Accept whenNPV above 0, or PI above 1
Value additivityNPV of a combination = sum of NPVs
Test yourself: Present value of inflows is Rs 1,20,000. Present value of outflows is Rs 1,00,000. What is the profitability index?
  1. 0.83
  2. 1.2
  3. 1.5
  4. 20,000

Answer: B. 1,20,000 / 1,00,000 = 1.2.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the profitability index (July 2018), value additivity (March 2023), merits of NPV (June 2024) and the NPV steps (January 2025).
Remember: NPV adds up. PI divides.

Internal rate of return and reinvestment

IRR is the discount rate that makes NPV zero. It assumes cash flows are reinvested at the IRR itself.

  • In the IRR method, cash flows and life are known. The rate is unknown.
  • NPV assumes reinvestment at the discount rate or cost of capital.
  • Modified IRR assumes reinvestment at a stated rate.
  • IRR considers all cash flows and the time value of money.

IRR assumes that every inflow earns the project's own rate, which can be unrealistically high. NPV's assumption is more realistic. MIRR fixes the problem by using the cost of capital as the reinvestment rate.

MethodReinvestment rate
NPVDiscount rate (cost of capital)
IRRThe IRR itself
MIRRA stated rate, usually the cost of capital
Test yourself: Which method assumes cash inflows are reinvested at the project's own rate of return?
  1. NPV
  2. ARR
  3. Discounted payback
  4. IRR

Answer: D. IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on IRR's reinvestment assumption (July 2018, November 2021), what is unknown in IRR (December 2018), its definition (November 2021) and its advantages (March 2023).
Remember: IRR solves for the rate. NPV is given the rate.

Techniques at a glance and DCF methods

Discounted cash flow techniques account for the time value of money. Payback and ARR do not.

  • DCF: NPV, IRR and profitability index.
  • Non-DCF: payback and ARR.
  • ARR is based on accounting profit.

A match question gives definitions. NPV is the sum of present values of inflows less outflows. IRR equates present values. ARR is average profit after tax divided by average investment. PI is the ratio of present value of inflows to the outlay.

TechniqueDCF?
Payback periodNo
ARRNo
NPVYes
IRR and PIYes
Test yourself: Which of these is a discounted cash flow technique?
  1. Payback period
  2. ARR
  3. Internal rate of return
  4. Average profit

Answer: C. IRR discounts cash flows.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on DCF techniques (June 2025) and as matches of definitions (September 2024, December 2025).
Remember: DCF: NPV, IRR, PI. Not payback, not ARR.

Conflicts, rationing and risk

When NPV and IRR disagree

NPV and IRR can rank mutually exclusive projects differently. The causes are differences between the projects.

  • Time disparity: cash flows come at different times.
  • Cost (size) disparity: outlays differ.
  • Life disparity: project lives differ.
  • Cash flow pattern disparity.

IRR favours a project with early cash flows or a small size, even when NPV favours the other. When they conflict, rely on NPV because it measures the rupee gain to shareholders.

Common trap: Volume disparity is not one of the standard causes of conflict.
DisparityWhy it matters
TimeEarly cash flows favour IRR
SizeLarge project may have lower IRR, higher NPV
LifeDifferent lives are compared unevenly
PatternDifferent shape of inflows
Test yourself: Which of these can cause NPV and IRR to conflict?
  1. Volume disparity
  2. Differences in size of outlay
  3. Both rates equal
  4. Same cash flows

Answer: B. Size, timing, life and pattern differences cause conflict.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the conflict of NPV and IRR (June 2019, October 2020) and on IRR problems for mutually exclusive projects (June 2023).
Remember: Time, size, life, pattern.

Capital rationing and the optimal budget

Capital rationing means a firm cannot fund all profitable projects. The optimal budget is where the investment opportunity curve meets the marginal cost of capital.

  • Causes: capital market imperfection, fear of losing control, inability to manage, poor market information.
  • IOC ranks projects by IRR, from highest to lowest.
  • MCC rises as more capital is raised.

The firm accepts projects as long as the IRR is above the marginal cost of raising one more rupee. It stops where the two curves cross.

CurveShape
Investment opportunity curveSlopes downward
Marginal cost of capitalRises with more capital
Optimal budgetWhere they intersect
Test yourself: The optimal capital budget lies at the intersection of which two curves?
  1. SML and CML
  2. WACC and MCC
  3. IOC and MCC
  4. WACC and IOC

Answer: C. The investment opportunity curve meets the marginal cost of capital curve.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on capital rationing (October 2022) and on the optimal capital budget (June 2023).
Remember: Optimal budget: IOC meets MCC.

Risk analysis and terminal cash flows

Risk in projects is studied with sensitivity, scenario and simulation analysis. The terminal year has special cash flows.

  • Sensitivity: change one variable at a time.
  • Scenario: change a combination of variables, such as best, base and worst cases.
  • Simulation: a computer generates many scenarios from probability distributions.
  • Terminal year: release of working capital and sale of assets, with tax on gains.

Sensitivity asks 'what if sales fall 10 per cent?'. Scenario analysis asks 'what if the economy is in recession?'. In the final year, working capital that was tied up comes back, and the asset is sold.

TechniqueIdea
SensitivityOne variable at a time
ScenarioA combination of variables
SimulationComputer-generated trials
Terminal cash flowWorking capital release, asset sale
Test yourself: Changing a combination of variables to see the impact on NPV is called what?
  1. Sensitivity analysis
  2. Scenario analysis
  3. Break-even analysis
  4. Payback analysis

Answer: B. Scenario analysis tests combinations such as best, base and worst cases.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on a match of sensitivity, scenario and simulation (June 2024) and on terminal cash flows (September 2024).
Remember: One variable is sensitivity. Many variables is scenario.

International capital budgeting and APV

Multinational projects add political and currency risk. The adjusted present value method values the base case and adds financing side effects.

  • Political risk is part of multinational capital budgeting.
  • APV rests on the value additivity principle.
  • APV = base case NPV + present value of financing side effects.

First value the project as if all-equity financed. Then add the value of side effects such as interest tax shields and subsidised loans. The two parts are simply added.

APV partMeaning
Base-case NPVValue if financed wholly by equity
Financing effectsTax shield, subsidised loans
ResultSum of the parts
Test yourself: The adjusted present value model is based on which principle?
  1. Gresham's principle
  2. Value additivity
  3. Law of one price
  4. Multilateral netting

Answer: B. APV values the parts and adds them.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on political risk (October 2020) and on the APV model (June 2023).
Remember: APV adds the parts.
🧮 Cost of capital

What each source of funds costs, from debt to retained earnings, and how the costs combine into one overall rate.

In the question bank: 16 questions from 13 of 16 exam sessions, 2018–2025.

Cost of each source

Meaning and use of the cost of capital

The cost of capital is the minimum return a firm must earn on an investment to keep its value unchanged.

  • It is the discount rate in NPV.
  • It is the cut-off rate for accepting projects.
  • Each source has its own cost. The overall cost is their weighted average.

Debt is cheaper than equity, because lenders take less risk and interest saves tax. Equity is costlier because shareholders bear more risk and rank last in liquidation. A firm that earns less than its cost of capital destroys value.

Example: A firm's cost of capital is 12 per cent. A project that earns 10 per cent should be rejected. One that earns 15 per cent should be accepted.
SourceRelative cost
DebtLowest, tax shield
Preference capitalMiddle, no tax shield
Retained earningsImplicit, close to equity
New equityHighest, flotation cost
Test yourself: Why is the cost of equity higher than the cost of debt?
  1. Debt is not tax deductible
  2. Equity has a fixed dividend
  3. Equity holders bear more risk
  4. Debt is unsecured

Answer: C. Equity holders rank last and receive uncertain returns.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on why equity costs more than debt (July 2018) and on the cost of capital in the NPV and reinvestment questions (November 2021).
Remember: Cost of capital is the hurdle rate.

Cost of debt

The cost of debt is the interest the firm pays, adjusted for tax and for any premium or discount on issue.

  • After-tax cost = interest x (1 - tax rate) / net proceeds.
  • A perpetual bond issued and redeemed at par costs its coupon, after tax.
  • A premium raises the net proceeds and lowers the cost.
  • A discount lowers net proceeds and raises the cost.

Interest is tax deductible, so the government shares part of the cost. A 7 per cent bond with tax at 30 per cent costs 7 x 0.7 = 4.9 per cent. For a bond issued at a premium, divide by the larger proceeds.

Example: Rs 1,00,000 of 10 per cent perpetual debt is issued at a 10 per cent premium. Proceeds are Rs 1,10,000. Before tax cost is 10,000 / 1,10,000 = 9.09 per cent. After tax at 35 per cent it is 5.91 per cent. At 50 per cent tax it is 4.54 per cent.
CaseAfter-tax cost
Perpetual at par, 7%, tax 30%4.9 per cent
Perpetual 10% at 10% premium, tax 35%5.91 per cent
Same, tax 50%4.54 per cent
Test yourself: A perpetual bond is sold and redeemed at par. Coupon is 7 per cent. Tax rate is 30 per cent. What is the after-tax cost?
  1. 2.1 per cent
  2. 4.9 per cent
  3. 7 per cent
  4. 10 per cent

Answer: B. 7 x (1 - 0.30) = 4.9 per cent.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on perpetual debt in four sessions (September 2024, October 2022, January 2025) and on debentures at a discount (December 2019).
Remember: Debt cost after tax = interest x (1 - tax).

Cost of preference shares

Preference dividend is not tax deductible. The cost is the dividend divided by net proceeds, with an adjustment if the shares are redeemable.

  • Irredeemable: dividend / net proceeds.
  • Redeemable: add the yearly amortised gain, divide by the average of redemption value and proceeds.
  • No tax adjustment is made.

For Rs 100 shares issued at Rs 95 with a 10 per cent dividend, cost is 10 / 95 = 10.53 per cent. The number of shares does not matter. For redeemable shares, the gap between redemption value and net proceeds is spread over the years.

Example: Rs 100 shares redeemable at a 10 per cent premium after 15 years. Dividend is 12 per cent, flotation cost Rs 5, sale price Rs 95. Net proceeds Rs 90. Annual amortisation is (110 - 90) / 15 = Rs 1.33. Cost is (12 + 1.33) / ((110 + 90) / 2) = 13.33 per cent.
CaseCost
10% preference at Rs 9510 / 95 = 10.53 per cent
Redeemable at Rs 110, net Rs 90, 15 years, 12%13.33 per cent
Test yourself: 10 per cent irredeemable preference shares of Rs 100 are issued at Rs 95. What is the cost?
  1. 10 per cent
  2. 10.53 per cent
  3. 10.83 per cent
  4. 9.5 per cent

Answer: B. 10 / 95 = 10.53 per cent.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked in four sessions: June 2019, March 2023, June 2025 and an irredeemable case.
Remember: Preference cost = dividend / net proceeds.

Cost of equity: dividend growth model and CAPM

Cost of equity is the return shareholders require. It can be found by the dividend growth model or by CAPM.

  • Dividend growth: Ke = D1 / P0 + g.
  • With flotation cost f: Ke = D1 / (P0 x (1 - f)) + g.
  • CAPM: Ke = Rf + beta x market premium.
  • D1 = D0 x (1 + g).

If the dividend just paid is Rs 3 and grows 5 per cent, next year's dividend is Rs 3.15. At a price of Rs 63, yield is 5 per cent. Ke is 5 + 5 = 10 per cent. Under CAPM with Rf 6, beta 1.54 and premium 9, Ke = 6 + 13.86 = 19.86 per cent.

Example: Price Rs 80, D1 Rs 4, growth 10 per cent, flotation 8 per cent. Net price is 80 x 0.92 = Rs 73.60. Yield is 5.43 per cent. Ke is 15.43 per cent.
ModelFormula
Dividend growthD1 / P0 + g
With flotation costD1 / (P0 (1 - f)) + g
CAPMRf + beta x (Rm - Rf)
Example6 + 1.54 x 9 = 19.86 per cent
Test yourself: Price is Rs 90, expected dividend Rs 4.50, growth 8 per cent. What is the required return?
  1. 5 per cent
  2. 8 per cent
  3. 13 per cent
  4. 20 per cent

Answer: C. Yield 4.50 / 90 = 5 per cent. Add growth 8 per cent to get 13 per cent.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the dividend growth model (March 2023, June 2023), flotation cost (October 2022) and CAPM (March 2023, June 2024).
Remember: Equity cost = yield + growth, or Rf + beta x premium.

Retained earnings and implicit cost

Retained earnings are not free. They carry an implicit cost equal to the return shareholders give up.

  • Implicit cost: no cash payment, but an opportunity cost.
  • Equity share capital, debentures and preference capital involve explicit payments.
  • A new issue is costlier than retained earnings because of flotation costs.

If profit is kept in the firm, shareholders lose the dividend they could have invested elsewhere. That forgone return is the cost. A new issue also pays underwriting and brokerage.

SourceCost type
Retained earningsImplicit
Equity capitalExplicit dividends
DebenturesExplicit interest
Preference capitalExplicit dividend
Test yourself: Which source of finance has an implicit cost of capital?
  1. Retained earnings
  2. Preference capital
  3. Debentures
  4. Bank loan

Answer: A. Shareholders could have earned a return on the profit if it were paid out.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on implicit cost of capital (December 2018), why equity costs more than debt (July 2018) and new issue versus retained earnings (December 2025).
Remember: Retained earnings carry an implicit cost.

Weighted average cost of capital

The overall cost of capital is the weighted average of the cost of each source. Weights are the shares in the capital structure.

  • WACC = sum of weight x cost.
  • Use after-tax cost of debt when tax is given.
  • With the NOI idea: overall cost = EBIT / value of the firm.

Take 20 per cent debt at 10 per cent and 80 per cent equity at 15 per cent. The weighted cost is 2 + 12 = 14 per cent. Another case: EBIT Rs 5 lakh, debt Rs 20 lakh at 10 per cent, equity cost 16 per cent. Equity value is 3 / 0.16 = Rs 18.75 lakh. Firm value is Rs 38.75 lakh. Overall cost is 5 / 38.75 = 12.9 per cent.

Example: Debt 20 per cent at 10 per cent and equity 80 per cent at 15 per cent. WACC is 2 + 12 = 14 per cent.
SourceWeightCostProduct
Debt20 per cent10 per cent2.0
Equity80 per cent15 per cent12.0
WACC100 per cent14 per cent14.0
Test yourself: Debt is 20 per cent at 10 per cent cost. Equity is 80 per cent at 15 per cent. What is the WACC?
  1. 11 per cent
  2. 12 per cent
  3. 13 per cent
  4. 14 per cent

Answer: D. 0.2 x 10 + 0.8 x 15 = 14 per cent.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on WACC (October 2020) and overall cost of capital (June 2025).
Remember: Weight times cost, add up.
⚖️ Capital structure and leverage

How much debt a firm should use: the approaches of Durand, Modigliani and Miller, the trade-off idea, and the three kinds of leverage.

In the question bank: 30 questions from 15 of 16 exam sessions, 2018–2025.

Capital structure theories

Net income, net operating income and traditional approaches

These approaches ask whether debt changes firm value. Net income says yes, net operating income says no, and the traditional approach says up to a point.

  • Net income (NI): more debt raises value and lowers the overall cost.
  • Net operating income (NOI): value is unaffected, because equity cost rises linearly.
  • Traditional: value rises, then falls beyond an optimum.
  • NI and NOI are both by David Durand.

Under NI, cost of debt and equity stay constant. Under NOI, the cost of equity rises linearly with leverage. The traditional view lets cost of equity rise slowly at first, then sharply. The firm has an optimal capital structure.

Common trap: 'Gross profit approach' is not a capital structure approach. The real ones are NI, NOI, traditional and MM.
ApproachEffect of more debt
Net incomeValue rises
Net operating incomeNo change in value
TraditionalRises first, then falls
Modigliani-MillerIrrelevant without tax, helps with tax
Test yourself: Under which approach does value rise first and then fall as leverage rises?
  1. Net income
  2. Traditional
  3. Net operating income
  4. MM without tax

Answer: B. Excess debt raises costs beyond the optimum.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on NI (June 2019, June 2024, twice), NOI (December 2019), traditional approach (October 2022, March 2023) and approaches in general (July 2018, June 2019).
Remember: NI says debt always helps. NOI says it never matters. Traditional says up to a point.

Modigliani and Miller

Modigliani and Miller say capital structure does not matter in a perfect market. With corporate tax, debt adds value through the tax shield.

  • Without tax: value is independent of leverage.
  • Assumptions: perfect markets, no taxes, rational investors, 100 per cent payout, homogeneous risk, same expectations.
  • With tax: levered value = unlevered value + tax rate x debt.
  • Arbitrage through home-made leverage keeps values equal.

If two firms have the same earnings but different values, investors buy the cheap firm and sell the dear one, using personal borrowing. That arbitrage pushes values together. Asymmetric information is not an MM assumption.

Example: Unlevered value Rs 700 lakh. Debt Rs 200 lakh. Tax 35 per cent. Tax shield is Rs 70 lakh. Levered value is Rs 770 lakh.
VersionValue of levered firm
No taxSame as unlevered
With corporate taxUnlevered + tax rate x debt
Example700 + 0.35 x 200 = 770 lakh
Test yourself: An unlevered firm is worth Rs 700 lakh. A levered firm has debt of Rs 200 lakh. Tax is 35 per cent. What is its value under MM?
  1. Rs 630 lakh
  2. Rs 770 lakh
  3. Rs 700 lakh
  4. Rs 950 lakh

Answer: B. 700 + 0.35 x 200 = Rs 770 lakh.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on MM assumptions (November 2021, October 2022), the tax case (November 2021) and the arbitrage process (September 2024). Also on home-made leverage (June 2023).
Remember: MM no tax: leverage is irrelevant. With tax: add the shield.

Trade-off, pecking order and signalling

Newer theories explain real financing behaviour.

  • Static trade-off: borrow until the tax benefit equals the cost of financial distress.
  • Pecking order: internal funds first, then debt, then new equity. No target capital structure.
  • Signalling: financing choices send a message to investors.
  • Both pecking order and signalling rest on asymmetric information.

Managers know more than outsiders. If a firm issues new shares, investors suspect the shares are overpriced. So firms prefer internal funds. The match question pairs each theory with its key idea.

TheoryKey idea
MMHome-made leverage
Pecking orderNo target, internal funds first
Trade-offCosts of financial distress
SignallingAsymmetric information
Test yourself: Which theory says a firm borrows until the tax benefit equals the cost of distress?
  1. Static trade-off
  2. Net income
  3. Net operating income
  4. MM without tax

Answer: A. The trade-off theory balances tax savings with distress costs.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on pecking order (November 2021), a match of theories (June 2023) and the static trade-off theory (December 2023).
Remember: Pecking order: inside money first.

Debt capacity, target and optimum structure

A firm's debt capacity is the amount of debt it can carry safely. Target and optimum structures are goals.

  • Debt capacity depends on the ability to generate cash flows.
  • Optimum structure: the debt-equity mix that maximises firm value.
  • Target structure: the debt ratio management aims to reach.
  • A low debt ratio suits a new business because early earnings are uncertain.

The cash flow approach sets a tolerance limit on default risk. It estimates the cash flow distribution and finds the debt that meets the limit. A new firm should avoid heavy debt. Debt service is fixed, while its profits are low.

TermMeaning
Capital structureMix of long-term funds
Optimum structureMaximises firm value
Target structureRatio management aims for
Cost of financial distressPerceived costs of high debt
Test yourself: Which of these refers to the composition of long-term funds such as debentures and equity?
  1. Capital structure
  2. Capital budgeting
  3. Working capital
  4. Cost of capital

Answer: A. This is the definition of capital structure.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on debt capacity (October 2022, November 2021) and the cost of financial distress (October 2020). Also on a new business (December 2018).
Remember: Debt capacity: how much cash the firm can safely commit to lenders.

Interest coverage and the cost of more debt

Interest coverage tests how safely a firm can pay interest. More debt carries both explicit and implicit costs.

  • Interest coverage = EBIT / interest.
  • Preference dividend is not interest.
  • Implicit cost of debt: shareholders demand a higher return as financial risk rises.

With EBIT of Rs 35 lakh, a 15 per cent loan of Rs 50 lakh gives Rs 7.5 lakh of interest. A 20 per cent loan of Rs 30 lakh gives Rs 6 lakh. Deposits of Rs 15 lakh at 14 per cent give Rs 2.1 lakh. Total interest is Rs 15.6 lakh. Coverage is 35 / 15.6 = 2.24 times.

Example: EBIT Rs 35 lakh. Total interest Rs 15.6 lakh. Coverage is 2.24 times.
ItemCounted in interest?
Term loan interestYes
Working capital loan interestYes
Public deposit interestYes
Preference dividendNo
Test yourself: EBIT is Rs 35 lakh and total interest is Rs 15.6 lakh. What is the interest coverage ratio?
  1. 0.45
  2. 1.98
  3. 2.24
  4. 2.59

Answer: C. 35 / 15.6 = 2.24 times.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on interest coverage (October 2022) and on the implicit cost of increasing debt (July 2018).
Remember: Coverage = EBIT / total interest.

Leverage

Operating, financial and combined leverage

Leverage magnifies change. Operating leverage links sales to EBIT. Financial leverage links EBIT to EPS. Combined leverage links sales to EPS.

  • Operating leverage = contribution / EBIT.
  • Financial leverage = EBIT / EBT.
  • Combined leverage = contribution / EBT = operating x financial.
  • EPS = EAT / number of equity shares.

Contribution is sales minus variable cost. EBIT is contribution minus fixed cost. EBT is EBIT minus interest. Take sales Rs 40 lakh, variable cost Rs 10 lakh, fixed cost Rs 15 lakh, interest Rs 5 lakh. Contribution is 30, EBIT 15, EBT 10. Operating leverage is 2, financial 1.5, combined 3.

Example: 10,000 toys at Rs 500, variable cost Rs 200, fixed cost Rs 25,00,000. Contribution Rs 30 lakh. EBIT Rs 5 lakh. Operating leverage is 6 times.
LeverageFormula
OperatingContribution / EBIT
FinancialEBIT / EBT
CombinedContribution / EBT
Combined measuresSales and EPS
Test yourself: Sales Rs 40 lakh, variable cost Rs 10 lakh, fixed cost Rs 15 lakh, interest Rs 5 lakh. What is combined leverage?
  1. 2
  2. 2.5
  3. 3
  4. 8

Answer: C. Contribution 30 / EBT 10 = 3.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on combined leverage (December 2018, twice), operating leverage (June 2024, June 2025) and a formula match (December 2025).
Remember: Operating: C over EBIT. Financial: EBIT over EBT. Combined: C over EBT.

Working out operating leverage from EBIT and fixed cost

Contribution can be found by adding fixed cost to EBIT. PBT is not needed for operating leverage.

  • Contribution = EBIT + fixed cost.
  • Operating leverage = (EBIT + fixed cost) / EBIT.
  • PBT is used for financial leverage.

If EBIT is Rs 1,120 and fixed cost Rs 700, contribution is Rs 1,820. Operating leverage is 1,820 / 1,120 = 1.625. Financial leverage is 1,120 / 320 = 3.5.

Example: EBIT 1,120, fixed cost 700, PBT 320. Operating leverage is 1.625. Financial leverage is 3.5.
ItemValue
EBIT1,120
Contribution1,820
Operating leverage1.625
Financial leverage3.5
Test yourself: EBIT is Rs 1,120 and fixed cost is Rs 700. What is operating leverage?
  1. 1.25
  2. 1.625
  3. 3.5
  4. 5.6

Answer: B. Contribution is 1,820, so DOL is 1,820 / 1,120 = 1.625.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on a calculation of operating leverage (June 2024).
Remember: Add fixed cost back to EBIT to find contribution.
💸 Dividend decision

How much profit to pay out: the theories of Walter, Gordon and Modigliani and Miller, the residual idea, and bonus and split decisions.

In the question bank: 12 questions from 10 of 16 exam sessions, 2018–2025.

Dividend theories

Walter's model

Walter says the best payout depends on the firm's return on investment compared with the cost of equity.

  • r above Ke (growth firm): best payout is 0 per cent.
  • r equals Ke (normal firm): payout does not matter.
  • r below Ke (declining firm): best payout is 100 per cent.
  • Price = [D + (r / Ke) x (E - D)] / Ke.

A growth firm earns more on retained profit than shareholders could elsewhere, so it should keep all. A declining firm earns less, so it should pay out everything. A Walter question gives EPS, r, Ke and payout ratio.

Example: EPS Rs 4. r is 16 per cent. Ke is 12 per cent. Payout 40 per cent. D is Rs 1.60. Retained is Rs 2.40. r / Ke is 1.333. Price is (1.60 + 1.333 x 2.40) / 0.12 = Rs 40.
Common trap: For a growth firm, Walter's optimal payout is 0 per cent. It is not 100 per cent.
Type of firmConditionBest payout
Growthr above Ke0 per cent
Normalr = KeAny
Decliningr below Ke100 per cent
Test yourself: According to Walter, the value of the share of a declining firm is maximum at what payout?
  1. 0 per cent
  2. 50 per cent
  3. 75 per cent
  4. 100 per cent

Answer: D. A declining firm earns less than shareholders' cost, so it should distribute everything.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the optimal payout (July 2018), price per share (October 2020, December 2023) and a declining firm (December 2025).
Remember: r above Ke: retain. r below Ke: distribute.

Gordon's model and the bird in hand

Gordon says dividends matter. Investors prefer a sure dividend today to an uncertain capital gain later.

  • Bird in hand argument: Gordon.
  • Assumptions: Ke greater than growth, perpetual life, constant retention ratio, constant cost of capital, no taxes.
  • Growth g = retention ratio x r.

If Ke were less than g, the price would be infinite. So Ke must be greater than g. Gordon assumes r and Ke are constant, not changing. The dividend payout ratio is the part of earnings paid to equity shareholders.

Gordon assumptionTrue?
Ke greater than gYes
Perpetual lifeYes
Constant retentionYes
r and Ke keep changingNo
Test yourself: Which statement is an assumption of Gordon's model?
  1. Ke is less than growth
  2. No internal financing
  3. Constant cost of capital
  4. r and Ke are changing

Answer: C. Gordon assumes the cost of capital stays constant.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on Gordon's assumptions (October 2022, September 2024) and on the bird in hand argument (December 2019).
Remember: Gordon: bird in hand.

Modigliani and Miller on dividends

MM say dividends are irrelevant in a perfect market. The value of a firm depends on its investment policy, not on how profit is split.

  • Assumptions: perfect markets, no taxes, certainty about future prices and dividends.
  • The investment policy is fixed ahead of time and does not change with dividends.
  • Any shortfall in funds is met by new outside financing.

When the firm pays more dividend, it raises new shares to fund the same projects. Shareholders are no better off, so the price does not change. This is the opposite of Gordon's view.

TheoryDividend relevant?
WalterYes
GordonYes
Modigliani-MillerNo
Residual theoryDividend is what is left over
Test yourself: According to MM, on what does the value of a firm depend?
  1. Dividend payout
  2. Retention ratio
  3. Investment policy
  4. Stock splits

Answer: C. Dividends are irrelevant to firm value in a perfect market.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on MM dividend irrelevance (June 2023) and its assumptions (October 2022).
Remember: MM: investment decides value, dividend does not.

Residual theory, stock splits and payout facts

The residual theory pays dividends only from what is left after good projects are funded. A stock split cuts the price per share.

  • Residual: accept all positive NPV projects, then pay what is left.
  • Stock split aims: reduce market price and encourage wider ownership.
  • Capital profits can be distributed as dividends if the articles allow and they are realised.
  • Dividends are a cash outflow and affect liquidity.

A Rs 1,000 share split 1:10 trades near Rs 100. A lower price attracts small investors. The idea that dividends do not affect liquidity is false.

Example: Profit is Rs 10 crore. Good projects need Rs 7 crore. Dividend is Rs 3 crore.
ItemFact
Residual theoryDividend only from residual funds
Stock splitLowers price per share
Bird in handGordon
Payout ratioDividend / earnings
Test yourself: What are the aims of a stock split?
  1. Cut dividend
  2. Increase the face value
  3. Reduce market price and encourage wider ownership
  4. Reduce number of shares

Answer: C. A split lowers the price, so more investors can afford the shares.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on residual theory (November 2021), stock split (October 2022) and false statements about dividend (December 2018).
Remember: Residual: dividend is the leftover.
🔄 Working capital management

How a firm manages its short-term funds: the operating cycle, inventory, cash and receivables, and the financing mix.

In the question bank: 22 questions from 13 of 16 exam sessions, 2018–2025.

Concepts and the cycle

Gross and net working capital

Gross working capital is the investment in current assets. Net working capital is current assets minus current liabilities.

  • Negative net working capital means short-term funds have been used for fixed assets.
  • The schedule of changes in working capital follows set rules.
  • Higher net working capital does not always mean higher profit.

If current liabilities exceed current assets, some short-term money has paid for long-term items. In a schedule of changes: a rise in current assets raises working capital. A rise in current liabilities lowers it.

Example: Current assets Rs 10 lakh and current liabilities Rs 4 lakh. Gross working capital is Rs 10 lakh. Net is Rs 6 lakh.
ChangeEffect on working capital
Increase in current assetsIncreases
Increase in current liabilitiesDecreases
Decrease in current assetsDecreases
Decrease in current liabilitiesIncreases
Test yourself: Negative net working capital means what?
  1. Long-term funds used for fixed assets
  2. Long-term funds used for current assets
  3. Short-term funds used for fixed assets
  4. Short-term funds used for current assets

Answer: C. Current liabilities exceed current assets because short-term funds paid for fixed assets.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on negative net working capital (July 2018), gross working capital (January 2025) and the schedule of changes (November 2021).
Remember: Gross is all current assets. Net subtracts the liabilities.

Operating cycle and working capital cycle

The operating cycle is the time from buying raw material to collecting cash. Subtract the payables period to get the net cycle.

  • Order: raw material, work in progress, finished goods, receivables, payables deferral.
  • Net cycle = gross cycle - credit from suppliers.
  • A longer cycle needs more working capital.

A firm holds raw material 60 days, production takes 15, finished goods stay 30, debtors take 30 days. That is 135 days. Suppliers give 15 days of credit. The net working capital cycle is 120 days.

Example: 60 + 15 + 30 + 30 = 135 days. Less 15 days supplier credit. Net cycle is 120 days.
StageDays
Raw material held60
Production (work in progress)15
Finished goods held30
Credit to debtors30
Less credit from suppliers-15
Test yourself: Raw material 60 days, production 15 days, finished goods 30 days, debtors 30 days, creditors 15 days. What is the net cycle?
  1. 90 days
  2. 100 days
  3. 120 days
  4. 150 days

Answer: C. 60 + 15 + 30 + 30 - 15 = 120 days.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the sequence of the operating cycle (December 2019, September 2024) and a cycle calculation (June 2025).
Remember: Raw material, work in progress, finished goods, receivables, less payables.

Determinants and financing approaches

Working capital needs depend on the nature of business and credit policy. The financing mix can be matching, conservative or aggressive.

  • Determinants: nature of business, technology and manufacturing policy, credit policy, market conditions, business cycle.
  • Aggressive: part of permanent working capital financed by short-term funds. Higher profit, lower liquidity.
  • Conservative: more long-term funds. Higher liquidity, lower profit.
  • Matching: maturity of funds matches the need. Trade-off is a compromise.

Short-term funds are cheaper but risky because they must be renewed. Long-term funds are dearer but safer. Operating cycle approach is a way to estimate the amount, not a financing mix.

Common trap: Operating cycle is not a financing approach. The approaches are matching, conservative and aggressive.
ApproachProfitabilityLiquidity
AggressiveHigherLower
ConservativeLowerHigher
MatchingMediumMedium
Test yourself: In which approach is part of permanent working capital financed by short-term funds?
  1. Matching
  2. Conservative
  3. Traditional
  4. Aggressive

Answer: D. The aggressive approach uses short-term funds for part of permanent needs.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on determinants (March 2023, January 2025) and on financing approaches (October 2022, twice, June 2024, December 2025).
Remember: Aggressive: cheap and risky. Conservative: costly and safe.

Inventory, cash and receivables

Economic order quantity and inventory control

EOQ is the order size that minimises ordering and carrying cost. Control techniques classify items.

  • EOQ = root of (2 x annual usage x ordering cost / carrying cost).
  • Carrying cost per unit may be a percentage of unit price.
  • Orders per year = annual usage / EOQ.
  • ABC classifies by value. FSND by usage rate. JIT brings stock just in time.

Always convert usage to a year first. If monthly consumption is 1,350 units, annual is 16,200. Carrying cost 30 per cent of Rs 20 is Rs 6. EOQ is the square root of (2 x 16,200 x 2,400 / 6), which is 3,600 units.

Example: Annual demand 3,200, ordering cost Rs 150, carrying cost 25 per cent of Rs 6 = Rs 1.50. EOQ is root of (2 x 3,200 x 150 / 1.5) = 800 units. Orders per year are 3,200 / 800 = 4.
CaseEOQ
90,000 units, Rs 300 order, Rs 6 carrying3,000 units
90,000 units, Rs 300 order, 20% of Rs 39,487 units
16,200 units, Rs 2,400, Rs 63,600 units
Test yourself: Annual use is 90,000 units, ordering cost Rs 300 and carrying cost Rs 6 per unit. What is the EOQ?
  1. 1,500 units
  2. 3,000 units
  3. 4,500 units
  4. 6,000 units

Answer: B. EOQ = root of (2 x 90,000 x 300 / 6) = 3,000.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on EOQ in five sessions (June 2019, October 2020, November 2021, March 2023) and on inventory control techniques (November 2021).
Remember: EOQ = root of 2AO over C.

Cash management models

Baumol and Miller-Orr models manage cash balances. Cash budgets can be prepared in three ways.

  • Baumol model treats cash like inventory. Needs are known and steady.
  • Miller-Orr model suits uncertain cash flows. It sets upper and lower limits and a return point.
  • Cash budget methods: receipts and payments, adjusted net income, pro forma balance sheet.
  • Financial slack is a cash reserve built from internal funds.

Baumol assumes cash needs are known with certainty. If the firm cannot forecast its needs, the Baumol assumption fails. Cash cycle is not a cash budget method.

ModelKey feature
BaumolCertainty, uniform payments
Miller-OrrUncertain flows, control limits
Cash budget methodsReceipts and payments, adjusted net income, balance sheet
Financial slackCash reserve from internal funds
Test yourself: The Miller-Orr model is used in the management of what?
  1. Inventory
  2. Leverage
  3. Receivables
  4. Cash

Answer: D. Miller-Orr sets control limits for cash balances.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on Miller-Orr (June 2019), Baumol's assumptions (September 2024), cash budget methods (December 2018) and financial slack (November 2021).
Remember: Baumol certain, Miller-Orr uncertain.

Credit policy and receivables

A firm's credit policy has three parts: terms of sale, credit analysis and collection policy.

  • Terms of sale: credit period, discounts, limits.
  • Credit analysis: checking customers' creditworthiness.
  • Collection policy: chasing overdue accounts.
  • Factoring and credit rating are not components.

Factoring is a way to finance receivables by selling them. A credit rating is an external assessment. The policy itself is made of terms, analysis and collection.

PartRole
Terms of saleCredit period and discount
Credit analysisCustomer assessment
Collection policyChasing overdue accounts
Not a partFactoring, credit rating
Test yourself: Which of these is a component of credit policy?
  1. Collection policy
  2. Credit rating
  3. Factoring
  4. Forfaiting

Answer: A. Collection policy is one of the three parts.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the components of credit policy (November 2021).
Remember: Terms, analysis, collection.
📉 Risk, return, portfolio and valuation

How risk is measured and priced: CAPM, beta, diversification, APT, bond and share valuation.

In the question bank: 20 questions from 11 of 16 exam sessions, 2018–2024.

Risk and return

Types of risk

Total risk splits into systematic and unsystematic risk. Business, financial and liquidity risk are more specific.

  • Systematic (market) risk affects all firms and cannot be diversified.
  • Unsystematic risk belongs to one firm and can be diversified.
  • Business risk: fluctuation in profits. Financial risk: from capital structure.
  • Liquidity risk: inability to pay dues on time.

An increase in corporate tax affects every firm, so it is systematic. A competitor entering the market hurts one firm, so it is unsystematic. Beta measures sensitivity to the market. The risk-free rate is the compensation for time.

RiskMeaning
SystematicAffects all firms, market-wide
UnsystematicSpecific to one firm
Financial riskFrom debt in capital structure
Liquidity riskCannot pay dues on time
BetaSensitivity to the market
Test yourself: Which of these is an example of unsystematic risk?
  1. A competitor enters the market
  2. Increase in corporate tax rate
  3. Recession
  4. Change in interest rates

Answer: A. It affects one firm only.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on matches of risk types (July 2018, November 2021) and on systematic risk terms (September 2024).
Remember: Systematic cannot be diversified. Unsystematic can.

CAPM, beta and real return

CAPM links expected return to systematic risk. Real return removes inflation.

  • Expected return = Rf + beta x (Rm - Rf).
  • Beta is influenced by portfolio size, estimation period, trading volume and return interval.
  • Real return = (1 + nominal) / (1 + inflation) - 1.

With Rf 6, beta 1.5 and market return 10, the premium is 4. Expected return is 6 + 1.5 x 4 = 12 per cent. With a nominal return of 12.5 and inflation of 3.5, the real return is 1.125 / 1.035 - 1 = 8.70 per cent. The shortcut 9 per cent is only an approximation.

Example: Rf 6 per cent, beta 1.5, Rm 10 per cent. Expected return is 6 + 1.5 x 4 = 12 per cent.
ItemFormula
CAPMRf + beta x (Rm - Rf)
Real return(1 + nominal) / (1 + inflation) - 1
Bond price vs interest rateMove in opposite directions
Test yourself: Rf is 6 per cent, beta 1.5, market return 10 per cent. What is the CAPM return?
  1. 12 per cent
  2. 15 per cent
  3. 16 per cent
  4. 17.5 per cent

Answer: A. 6 + 1.5 x (10 - 6) = 12 per cent.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on CAPM (June 2019, December 2019), portfolio beta (March 2023) and real return (June 2023). Also on bond prices and interest rates (October 2022).
Remember: CAPM: risk-free plus beta times premium.

Bond prices and interest rates

Bond prices and interest rates move in opposite directions. Long-term bonds are more sensitive.

  • When rates rise, bond prices fall.
  • When rates fall, bond prices rise.
  • Coupon rate = annual coupon / face value.
  • Yield to maturity is the market rate required on the bond.

A long-term government bond fixes its coupon. If market rates rise, buyers will pay less for the old coupon. So the price falls. That is interest rate risk.

TermMeaning
Coupon rateAnnual coupon / face value
Current yieldAnnual coupon / bond price
Yield to maturityMarket rate required on the bond
Interest rate riskPrice risk from rate changes
Test yourself: When market interest rates rise, what happens to existing bond prices?
  1. They rise
  2. They stay the same
  3. They fall
  4. They double

Answer: C. A fixed coupon is less attractive when rates are higher.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on interest rates and bond prices (October 2022) and on bond terms (December 2023).
Remember: Rates up, bond price down.

Portfolio management

Diversification and portfolio risk

Diversification reduces unsystematic risk. The benefit depends on the correlation between securities.

  • Perfect positive correlation: no risk reduction.
  • Perfect negative correlation: risk can be reduced to zero.
  • Diversification cannot remove market (systematic) risk.
  • The portfolio approach aims at risk optimisation.

If two securities move together exactly, a portfolio of them is just an average. If they move in opposite directions, the ups and downs cancel. The portfolio is judged as a whole, so the aim is the best risk-return trade-off.

CorrelationDiversification benefit
+1None
PartialSome
-1Risk can fall to zero
Test yourself: Portfolio risk can be minimised by combining securities with what correlation?
  1. Perfect negative
  2. Perfect positive
  3. Partial positive
  4. Zero return

Answer: A. Perfect negative correlation can bring risk to zero.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on diversification (July 2018, December 2018, October 2020) and on the portfolio approach (October 2022).
Remember: Negative correlation cancels risk.

Total return and international diversification

Total return is income plus capital gain over the purchase price. International diversification has barriers.

  • Total return = (periodic receipts + capital gains) / purchase price.
  • Barriers: exchange rate movements, market frictions, price manipulation, unequal information.
  • A foreign equity should offer a better return to justify extra risks.

Buy at Rs 100, get Rs 5 dividend, sell at Rs 110. Total return is (5 + 10) / 100 = 15 per cent. The base is always the purchase price.

Example: Buy at Rs 100, dividend Rs 5, sell at Rs 110. Total return is 15 per cent.
PartMeaning
Periodic receiptsDividends or interest
Capital gainSelling price - purchase price
BasePurchase price
Test yourself: Total return on a security is (periodic receipts + capital gains) divided by what?
  1. Face value
  2. Current market price
  3. Selling price
  4. Purchase price

Answer: D. Return is measured on the amount invested.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on total return (July 2018), barriers to international diversification (November 2021) and foreign versus domestic equity (October 2022).
Remember: Return is measured on what you paid.

Arbitrage pricing theory

APT says expected return depends on several macroeconomic factors, not on market beta alone.

  • Identify the macroeconomic factors.
  • Estimate the risk premium for each factor.
  • Estimate each factor sensitivity.

Factors can be inflation, GDP growth and interest rates. Each has a premium and the security has a sensitivity to each. APT is built on the idea that arbitrage removes mispricing.

OrderStep
1Identify macroeconomic factors
2Estimate the risk premium for each
3Estimate the factor sensitivities
Test yourself: What is the first step in APT?
  1. Identify macroeconomic factors
  2. Estimate premiums
  3. Estimate sensitivities
  4. Compute beta

Answer: A. The factors come first.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the sequence of APT steps (October 2020).
Remember: Factors, premiums, sensitivities.

Valuation

Earnings valuation ratios and growth opportunities

Valuation ratios compare price with earnings or book value. Price can be split into no-growth value plus growth value.

  • P/E = price / EPS. Earnings yield = EPS / price.
  • P/B = price / net worth per share. Relative P/E = firm P/E / index P/E.
  • Price = EPS / capitalisation rate + PVGO.

If price is Rs 80 and the present value of growth opportunities is Rs 20, the no-growth part is Rs 60. At a 15 per cent capitalisation rate, EPS is 60 x 0.15 = Rs 9.

Example: Price Rs 80, PVGO Rs 20, rate 15 per cent. EPS is Rs 9.
RatioFormula
P/EPrice / EPS
Earnings yieldEPS / price
Price-bookPrice / net worth per share
Relative P/EFirm P/E / index P/E
Test yourself: Price is Rs 80, PVGO is Rs 20, capitalisation rate is 15 per cent. What is EPS?
  1. Rs 3
  2. Rs 9
  3. Rs 12
  4. Rs 20

Answer: B. No-growth value is Rs 60. EPS is 60 x 0.15 = Rs 9.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on valuation ratios (October 2022) and on price and EPS with growth (September 2024).
Remember: Price = no-growth value + growth value.

Risk management process

Risk management follows a logical order, from identifying the risk to getting feedback.

  • Identify the risk variable.
  • Determine frequency and severity.
  • Select a risk model.
  • Apply a risk instrument, then give feedback.

A firm asks what can go wrong, how often and how badly, which model to use, and then buys insurance or hedges. Feedback closes the loop.

OrderStep
1Identify the risk variable
2Frequency and severity
3Choose risk model
4 and 5Apply instrument, then feedback
Test yourself: What is the first step in the risk management process?
  1. Identify the risk variable
  2. Apply an instrument
  3. Select a model
  4. Give feedback

Answer: A. Start by asking what can go wrong.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on the sequence of the risk management process (March 2023).
Remember: Identify, measure, model, apply, review.
🌐 Derivatives, leasing, mergers and international finance

Options and other derivatives, lease types, mergers and takeover defences, and how a firm hedges currency risk.

In the question bank: 20 questions from 9 of 16 exam sessions, 2018–2023.

Derivatives and leasing

Options: calls, puts and terms

A call option gives the right to buy at a fixed price. A put option gives the right to sell at a fixed price.

  • Call: right to buy. Put: right to sell.
  • European option: exercised only at maturity. American: any time up to maturity.
  • Option premium: paid by the buyer to the seller upfront.
  • In-the-money: immediate exercise has positive value.

A question may swap the definitions of call and put. Currency option price depends on the spot rate, the exercise rate, the foreign risk-free rate and time to expiry. Black-Scholes assumes that underlying prices are log-normally distributed.

TermMeaning
Call optionRight to buy
Put optionRight to sell
European optionExercised only on maturity date
Option premiumPrice paid upfront by the buyer
Test yourself: A right to sell a fixed amount of stock at a stated price on or before a set date is called what?
  1. Call option
  2. Swap
  3. Forward
  4. Put option

Answer: D. A put option is the right to sell.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on call and put (December 2018), option terms (November 2021), currency option pricing (October 2022) and Black-Scholes (March 2023).
Remember: Call is buy, put is sell.

Uses and advantages of derivatives

Derivatives are used by hedgers, speculators and arbitrageurs. They have advantages and a danger.

  • Hedgers: commercial producers who protect against price change.
  • Arbitrageurs: earn riskless profit.
  • Advantages: liquidity, insurance against risk, reduced price volatility.
  • Leverage increases risk, so it is not an advantage.

Commodity futures began in Osaka in Japan. Financial derivatives came to India to manage the risk from greater volatility. Derivatives let people control a large position with little money. But losses are magnified as well.

ParticipantRole
HedgerProtects against price risk
SpeculatorTakes risk for profit
ArbitrageurEarns riskless profit
Test yourself: Which of these is NOT an advantage of the derivatives market?
  1. Enhanced liquidity
  2. Leveraging increases risk
  3. A form of insurance against risk
  4. Reduced price volatility

Answer: B. Leverage magnifies losses as well as gains.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on participants and origins (November 2021) and on the advantages of derivatives (November 2021).
Remember: Hedge, speculate, arbitrage.

Leasing

Types of lease and lease versus buy

A lease gives the use of an asset for rent. Types differ by who bears the risks and by how many parties are involved.

  • Finance lease: lessor transfers substantially all risks and rewards.
  • Operating lease: lessor keeps them.
  • Sale and lease back: sell an asset and lease it back.
  • Leveraged lease: three parties, with a financier.

A sale and lease back suits a firm with a liquidity crisis. It turns a fixed asset into cash and the firm keeps using it. A firm buys when the equivalent annual cost of owning is less than the best lease rate. The tax shield on depreciation and interest matters to both lessor and lessee.

LeaseFeature
Finance leaseRisks and rewards pass to lessee
Operating leaseOwnership risk stays with lessor
Sale and lease backSell and lease back the same asset
Leveraged leaseLessor, lessee and financier
Test yourself: A sale and lease back arrangement is most suitable for a lessee with what?
  1. Liquidity crisis
  2. Surplus funds
  3. High profit
  4. Nil profit

Answer: A. It converts a fixed asset into cash while still using it.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on lease financing (December 2018) and sale and lease back (June 2019, June 2023). Also on lease or buy (October 2020) and types of lease.
Remember: Sale and lease back helps with cash shortage.

Mergers and international finance

Mergers and takeover defences

Some mergers are arranged under supervision. Targets use defence strategies to resist hostile takeovers.

  • Arranged merger: under BIFR supervision, a weak firm merged into a healthy one.
  • Pacman defence: the target makes a counter bid for the bidder's shares.
  • Crown jewels: the most valuable segments, wanted by the acquirer.
  • White knight: a friendly third party who helps the target.

Cash cows are segments with high market share in slow-growth markets. Greenmail and poison pill are other defences. Poison pill makes the target less attractive. Greenmail buys back the raider's shares at a premium.

TermMeaning
Arranged mergerUnder BIFR supervision
Pacman defenceCounter bid for bidder's shares
Crown jewelsMost valuable assets
White knightFriendly rescuer
Test yourself: When the target makes a counter bid for the bidder's stock, the strategy is what?
  1. Greenmail
  2. Poison pill
  3. Pacman defence
  4. Golden parachute

Answer: C. In the Pacman defence the target tries to buy the bidder.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on an arranged merger (December 2018), on takeover terms (October 2022) and on the Pacman defence (December 2023).
Remember: Pacman: the hunted bites the hunter.

Hedging currency risk and cross-listing

Firms hedge currency exposure with operational and financial techniques. Cross-listing widens the investor base.

  • Operational techniques: leading and lagging.
  • Financial hedge: forward, money market, swap.
  • A currency swap hedges foreign exchange risk.
  • Cross-listing can lower the cost of capital.

Leading and lagging change the timing of foreign currency flows and do not need a contract. Pooling holds group cash centrally. Netting offsets receivables against payables. Cross-listing expands the investor base, improves liquidity and can raise the share price.

TechniqueType
Leading and laggingOperational
Forward contractFinancial
Money market hedgeFinancial
Currency swapFinancial hedge
Test yourself: Which of these is an operational technique of hedging transaction exposure?
  1. Leading and lagging
  2. Forward contract
  3. Swap
  4. Money market hedge

Answer: A. Leading and lagging change timing, not contracts.

How UGC NET asks it: Asked on operational hedging (June 2023), currency swap (June 2019), exposure (December 2019), hedging terms (June 2023) and cross-listing (June 2023).
Remember: Leading and lagging change timing. Forwards and swaps use contracts.

Practise Business Finance

All 180 past questions in this unit, with full explanations.

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