Unit 4: Business Finance mind map
Unit 4 of UGC NET Commerce is the calculation unit. Many questions give you a few numbers and ask for a cost of capital, a payback period, a share price or a leverage figure. Others ask for a theory name, a list of assumptions or the order of steps. This map teaches both. Each concept gives the formula in crisp steps, a plain explanation, a worked example with the numbers, a table of formulas or facts to remember, and a short self-test. Everything comes from past UGC NET Commerce papers.
Short of time? Start with Capital budgeting. It carries the most questions (34). Use the Revision sheet tab for a fast read the night before the exam.
All the notes in one place
This is the same content as the map, written out so you can read it from top to bottom. Open a branch to read it.
💼 Finance basics, sources and time value
The aims of financial management, the long-term sources a firm can use, and the time value of money formulas.
Financial decisions and objectives
Financial decisions and the aim of wealth maximisation
Finance has three decisions: invest, finance and distribute. The best aim is wealth (value) maximisation, not profit maximisation.
- Investment: what to buy. Financing: how to raise funds, including capital structure and leverage.
- Dividend decision: how much profit to pay out.
- Wealth is the present value of all expected future cash flows.
Profit can be shaped by accounting choices. Cash is real. Present value also brings in timing and risk. That is why value maximisation is the most persuasive and lasting aim.
| Decision | Question it answers |
|---|---|
| Investment | Which assets to buy |
| Financing | How to raise funds, which mix |
| Dividend | How much to pay out |
| Aim | Wealth maximisation |
Test yourself: How is the value of a firm measured under wealth maximisation?
- Last year's profit
- All future profits
- Present value of profits
- Present value of all expected future cash flows
Answer: D. Wealth is the present value of all expected future cash flows.
Sustainable growth rate and flotation costs
The sustainable growth rate is the growth a firm can fund from its own profits. Flotation costs are the expenses of issuing new securities.
- Sustainable growth = return on equity x retention ratio.
- Retention ratio = 1 - dividend payout ratio.
- Flotation costs: legal fees, administrative expenses, brokerage, underwriting.
- A risk premium is not a flotation cost.
If ROE is 30 per cent and payout is 40 per cent, retention is 60 per cent. Growth is 30 x 0.6 = 18 per cent. The firm can grow at that rate without new equity or a change in leverage.
| Term | Formula or meaning |
|---|---|
| Sustainable growth | ROE x retention ratio |
| Retention ratio | 1 - payout ratio |
| Flotation cost | Legal, brokerage, underwriting, administrative |
Test yourself: Return on equity is 30 per cent and dividend payout is 40 per cent. What is the sustainable growth rate?
- 12 per cent
- 18 per cent
- 30 per cent
- 40 per cent
Answer: B. 30 x 0.60 = 18 per cent.
Private equity, venture capital and mezzanine capital
Private equity and venture capital invest in companies outside the public markets. Mezzanine capital sits between debt and equity.
- Venture capital funds young firms. Private equity funds established firms, often for restructuring.
- Mezzanine capital: subordinated debt or preferred equity.
- The main advantage of venture capital is expertise and guidance.
Both are set up as independent pools of capital and face few regulations. But using the money for financial or operating restructuring is typical of private equity, not venture capital. Venture capital usually means giving up some ownership.
| Source | Idea |
|---|---|
| Venture capital | Early-stage startups, expertise |
| Private equity | Established firms, restructuring |
| Mezzanine capital | Between debt and equity |
| GDR | Shares held by a custodian, receipts abroad |
Test yourself: What is the main advantage of raising capital through venture capital?
- Avoiding any loss of control
- Low cost funds
- Very long term money
- Access to expertise and guidance
Answer: D. Venture capitalists bring advice and contacts as well as money.
Long-term sources: preference shares, ECB, GDR and bonds
A firm can raise long-term funds in India and abroad. Preference shares have a legal maximum tenure.
- Preference shares in India: maximum 20 years (30 for infrastructure).
- ECB: external commercial borrowing, a long-term source.
- GDR: issued abroad against shares held by a custodian.
- Eurobonds, global bonds and Yankee bonds are international bonds.
GDR steps: registration, regulatory approval, appointment of custodian and vesting of shares, GDR allotment, listing. A Yankee bond is denominated in US dollars and issued in the USA. A Eurobond is issued outside the country of its currency.
| Item | Fact |
|---|---|
| Preference shares in India | Up to 20 years |
| ECB | Foreign long-term loan |
| Yankee bond | Dollar bond issued in the USA |
| Eurobond | Issued outside the currency's country |
Test yourself: What is the maximum period for which a company in India can issue preference shares?
- 10 years
- 15 years
- 20 years
- Unlimited
Answer: C. Section 55 of the Companies Act, 2013 sets a 20-year limit.
Off-balance sheet finance, green bonds and bond rates
Some funds do not show as a liability. Bond interest depends mainly on credit rating.
- Off-balance sheet: securitisation, factoring, forfaiting, operating lease.
- Credit rating is not a source of finance.
- Green bonds raise funds for green projects. The main concern is limited investor demand.
- A bond's interest rate depends mainly on its credit rating.
A higher rating means lower default risk, so investors accept a lower rate. The interest rate on government securities sets the base. The company's rating adds the spread.
| Source | Off balance sheet? |
|---|---|
| Securitisation | Yes |
| Factoring and forfaiting | Yes |
| Operating lease | Yes |
| Credit rating | Not a source of finance |
Test yourself: Which factor most affects the interest rate of a corporate bond?
- Credit rating of the bond
- Number of projects completed
- Level of FDI
- Dividend history
Answer: A. A higher credit rating lowers the rate.
Short-term sources of finance
Short-term sources fund working capital. Long-term sources fund fixed assets and permanent needs.
- Commercial paper, factoring and a line of credit are short term.
- External commercial borrowing is long term.
- Trade credit and bank credit are common short-term sources.
Match the period of the source to the period of the need. Short-term funds are cheaper but must be renewed. Using them for fixed assets creates liquidity risk.
| Source | Period |
|---|---|
| Commercial paper | Short term |
| Factoring | Short term |
| Line of credit | Short term |
| External commercial borrowing | Long term |
Test yourself: Which of the following is a long-term source of finance?
- External commercial borrowing
- Commercial paper
- Factoring
- Line of credit
Answer: A. ECB is a long-term loan from foreign lenders.
Time value of money
Present value, future value and annuities
Money today is worth more than the same money later because it can earn interest. Present and future value formulas link the two.
- Future value = cash flow x (1 + r)^t.
- Present value = cash flow / (1 + r)^t.
- Annuity: equal payments each period. Perpetuity: equal payments forever.
- Present value of a perpetuity = cash flow / discount rate.
Compounding goes forward in time. Discounting goes backward. An annuity uses tables: FVIFA for future value and PVIFA for present value. A payment of Rs 1,000 every year for ever at 10 per cent is worth Rs 10,000 today.
| Term | Formula |
|---|---|
| Future value | Cash flow x (1 + r)^t |
| Present value | Cash flow / (1 + r)^t |
| FV of annuity | R x FVIFA |
| PV of annuity | R x PVIFA |
| PV of perpetuity | Cash flow / r |
Test yourself: What is an infinite series of equal cash flows at regular intervals called?
- Annuity
- Annuity due
- Perpetuity
- Future value
Answer: C. Perpetuity has no end.
The rule of 72 and the rule of 69
The doubling time of money can be estimated by a rule of thumb. The rule depends on how interest is compounded.
- Rule of 72 for discrete (yearly) compounding.
- Rule of 69 (more precisely 69.3) for continuous compounding.
- Doubling time = 72 / rate in per cent.
At 8 per cent a year, money doubles in about 72 / 8 = 9 years. The number 69.3 comes from the natural log of 2. For discrete compounding, 72 is a better fit because it has more divisors.
| Compounding | Rule |
|---|---|
| Continuous | Rule of 69 (69.3) |
| Discrete | Rule of 72 |
Test yourself: At 9 per cent yearly compounding, about how long does money take to double?
- 6 years
- 8 years
- 9 years
- 12 years
Answer: B. 72 / 9 = 8 years.
🏗️ Capital budgeting
How a firm judges long-term projects: payback, accounting rate of return, NPV, IRR, profitability index, and the problems when they disagree.
Methods and calculations
The capital budgeting process
Capital budgeting follows a fixed order, from finding an idea to reviewing its performance. NPV needs cash flows and a discount rate first.
- Identify the proposal, screen it, evaluate it, select it, implement it, review it.
- NPV steps: forecast cash flows, find the discount rate, compute present values, compute NPV, rank.
- Multinational steps: net outlay, net cash flows, discount rate, evaluation technique.
You cannot choose a project until its NPV is known. NPV needs a discount rate. The discount rate needs cash flows. So the order is fixed. Many exam sequences use slight wording changes.
| Order | Step |
|---|---|
| 1 | Project generation / identification |
| 2 | Preliminary screening |
| 3 | Detailed evaluation |
| 4 | Selection and implementation |
| 5 | Control and performance review |
Test yourself: In evaluating a project by NPV, which step comes right after forecasting cash flows?
- Compute NPV
- Rank projects
- Identify an appropriate discount rate
- Calculate present values
Answer: C. The discount rate is needed to find present values.
Payback period
Payback period is the time taken to recover the initial outlay. It cares about recovery of cost, not profit.
- It ignores cash flows after the payback point.
- It ignores the time value of money.
- It suits over-leveraged firms and uncertain markets.
Add the yearly inflows until they equal the outlay. If the last year is only part-used, take a fraction. Payback is not a discounted method and does not measure profitability.
| Year | Cumulative inflow |
|---|---|
| 1 | Rs 8,000 |
| 2 | Rs 14,000 |
| 3 | Rs 18,000 |
| 4 | Rs 20,000 |
Test yourself: A project costs Rs 18,500. Inflows are 8,000, 6,000, 4,000, 2,000, 2,000. What is the payback period?
- 3.25 years
- 3.5 years
- 4 years
- 4.25 years
Answer: A. Rs 18,000 is back in 3 years. The last Rs 500 takes a quarter of year 4.
Accounting rate of return
ARR is average profit after tax divided by average investment. It uses accounting profit, not cash flow.
- ARR = average annual profit after tax / average investment x 100.
- Average investment = salvage value + half of (cost - salvage value).
- Profits given after depreciation and tax are used as they are.
First find the average profit. If earnings are before depreciation and tax, deduct depreciation and then tax. Then find the average investment. With no salvage value, it is half the cost.
| Item | Formula |
|---|---|
| Average profit | Total profit after tax / years |
| Average investment | Salvage + half of (cost - salvage) |
| ARR | Average profit / average investment |
Test yourself: Project cost Rs 40,000, no salvage. Average yearly profit after tax is Rs 3,200. What is the ARR?
- 8 per cent
- 10 per cent
- 16 per cent
- 32 per cent
Answer: C. Average investment is Rs 20,000. So 3,200 / 20,000 = 16 per cent.
Net present value and profitability index
NPV is the present value of inflows minus the present value of outflows. The profitability index is their ratio.
- NPV positive: accept. It adds to shareholders' wealth.
- PI = present value of inflows / present value of outflows.
- PI above 1 means NPV is positive.
- NPV satisfies the value additivity principle.
NPV gives an absolute rupee gain. It considers all cash flows and the time value of money. It gives less weight to distant receipts, not more. PI is the same idea as a ratio.
| Measure | Rule |
|---|---|
| NPV | PV of inflows - PV of outflows |
| PI | PV of inflows / PV of outflows |
| Accept when | NPV above 0, or PI above 1 |
| Value additivity | NPV of a combination = sum of NPVs |
Test yourself: Present value of inflows is Rs 1,20,000. Present value of outflows is Rs 1,00,000. What is the profitability index?
- 0.83
- 1.2
- 1.5
- 20,000
Answer: B. 1,20,000 / 1,00,000 = 1.2.
Internal rate of return and reinvestment
IRR is the discount rate that makes NPV zero. It assumes cash flows are reinvested at the IRR itself.
- In the IRR method, cash flows and life are known. The rate is unknown.
- NPV assumes reinvestment at the discount rate or cost of capital.
- Modified IRR assumes reinvestment at a stated rate.
- IRR considers all cash flows and the time value of money.
IRR assumes that every inflow earns the project's own rate, which can be unrealistically high. NPV's assumption is more realistic. MIRR fixes the problem by using the cost of capital as the reinvestment rate.
| Method | Reinvestment rate |
|---|---|
| NPV | Discount rate (cost of capital) |
| IRR | The IRR itself |
| MIRR | A stated rate, usually the cost of capital |
Test yourself: Which method assumes cash inflows are reinvested at the project's own rate of return?
- NPV
- ARR
- Discounted payback
- IRR
Answer: D. IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR.
Techniques at a glance and DCF methods
Discounted cash flow techniques account for the time value of money. Payback and ARR do not.
- DCF: NPV, IRR and profitability index.
- Non-DCF: payback and ARR.
- ARR is based on accounting profit.
A match question gives definitions. NPV is the sum of present values of inflows less outflows. IRR equates present values. ARR is average profit after tax divided by average investment. PI is the ratio of present value of inflows to the outlay.
| Technique | DCF? |
|---|---|
| Payback period | No |
| ARR | No |
| NPV | Yes |
| IRR and PI | Yes |
Test yourself: Which of these is a discounted cash flow technique?
- Payback period
- ARR
- Internal rate of return
- Average profit
Answer: C. IRR discounts cash flows.
Conflicts, rationing and risk
When NPV and IRR disagree
NPV and IRR can rank mutually exclusive projects differently. The causes are differences between the projects.
- Time disparity: cash flows come at different times.
- Cost (size) disparity: outlays differ.
- Life disparity: project lives differ.
- Cash flow pattern disparity.
IRR favours a project with early cash flows or a small size, even when NPV favours the other. When they conflict, rely on NPV because it measures the rupee gain to shareholders.
| Disparity | Why it matters |
|---|---|
| Time | Early cash flows favour IRR |
| Size | Large project may have lower IRR, higher NPV |
| Life | Different lives are compared unevenly |
| Pattern | Different shape of inflows |
Test yourself: Which of these can cause NPV and IRR to conflict?
- Volume disparity
- Differences in size of outlay
- Both rates equal
- Same cash flows
Answer: B. Size, timing, life and pattern differences cause conflict.
Capital rationing and the optimal budget
Capital rationing means a firm cannot fund all profitable projects. The optimal budget is where the investment opportunity curve meets the marginal cost of capital.
- Causes: capital market imperfection, fear of losing control, inability to manage, poor market information.
- IOC ranks projects by IRR, from highest to lowest.
- MCC rises as more capital is raised.
The firm accepts projects as long as the IRR is above the marginal cost of raising one more rupee. It stops where the two curves cross.
| Curve | Shape |
|---|---|
| Investment opportunity curve | Slopes downward |
| Marginal cost of capital | Rises with more capital |
| Optimal budget | Where they intersect |
Test yourself: The optimal capital budget lies at the intersection of which two curves?
- SML and CML
- WACC and MCC
- IOC and MCC
- WACC and IOC
Answer: C. The investment opportunity curve meets the marginal cost of capital curve.
Risk analysis and terminal cash flows
Risk in projects is studied with sensitivity, scenario and simulation analysis. The terminal year has special cash flows.
- Sensitivity: change one variable at a time.
- Scenario: change a combination of variables, such as best, base and worst cases.
- Simulation: a computer generates many scenarios from probability distributions.
- Terminal year: release of working capital and sale of assets, with tax on gains.
Sensitivity asks 'what if sales fall 10 per cent?'. Scenario analysis asks 'what if the economy is in recession?'. In the final year, working capital that was tied up comes back, and the asset is sold.
| Technique | Idea |
|---|---|
| Sensitivity | One variable at a time |
| Scenario | A combination of variables |
| Simulation | Computer-generated trials |
| Terminal cash flow | Working capital release, asset sale |
Test yourself: Changing a combination of variables to see the impact on NPV is called what?
- Sensitivity analysis
- Scenario analysis
- Break-even analysis
- Payback analysis
Answer: B. Scenario analysis tests combinations such as best, base and worst cases.
International capital budgeting and APV
Multinational projects add political and currency risk. The adjusted present value method values the base case and adds financing side effects.
- Political risk is part of multinational capital budgeting.
- APV rests on the value additivity principle.
- APV = base case NPV + present value of financing side effects.
First value the project as if all-equity financed. Then add the value of side effects such as interest tax shields and subsidised loans. The two parts are simply added.
| APV part | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Base-case NPV | Value if financed wholly by equity |
| Financing effects | Tax shield, subsidised loans |
| Result | Sum of the parts |
Test yourself: The adjusted present value model is based on which principle?
- Gresham's principle
- Value additivity
- Law of one price
- Multilateral netting
Answer: B. APV values the parts and adds them.
🧮 Cost of capital
What each source of funds costs, from debt to retained earnings, and how the costs combine into one overall rate.
Cost of each source
Meaning and use of the cost of capital
The cost of capital is the minimum return a firm must earn on an investment to keep its value unchanged.
- It is the discount rate in NPV.
- It is the cut-off rate for accepting projects.
- Each source has its own cost. The overall cost is their weighted average.
Debt is cheaper than equity, because lenders take less risk and interest saves tax. Equity is costlier because shareholders bear more risk and rank last in liquidation. A firm that earns less than its cost of capital destroys value.
| Source | Relative cost |
|---|---|
| Debt | Lowest, tax shield |
| Preference capital | Middle, no tax shield |
| Retained earnings | Implicit, close to equity |
| New equity | Highest, flotation cost |
Test yourself: Why is the cost of equity higher than the cost of debt?
- Debt is not tax deductible
- Equity has a fixed dividend
- Equity holders bear more risk
- Debt is unsecured
Answer: C. Equity holders rank last and receive uncertain returns.
Cost of debt
The cost of debt is the interest the firm pays, adjusted for tax and for any premium or discount on issue.
- After-tax cost = interest x (1 - tax rate) / net proceeds.
- A perpetual bond issued and redeemed at par costs its coupon, after tax.
- A premium raises the net proceeds and lowers the cost.
- A discount lowers net proceeds and raises the cost.
Interest is tax deductible, so the government shares part of the cost. A 7 per cent bond with tax at 30 per cent costs 7 x 0.7 = 4.9 per cent. For a bond issued at a premium, divide by the larger proceeds.
| Case | After-tax cost |
|---|---|
| Perpetual at par, 7%, tax 30% | 4.9 per cent |
| Perpetual 10% at 10% premium, tax 35% | 5.91 per cent |
| Same, tax 50% | 4.54 per cent |
Test yourself: A perpetual bond is sold and redeemed at par. Coupon is 7 per cent. Tax rate is 30 per cent. What is the after-tax cost?
- 2.1 per cent
- 4.9 per cent
- 7 per cent
- 10 per cent
Answer: B. 7 x (1 - 0.30) = 4.9 per cent.
Cost of preference shares
Preference dividend is not tax deductible. The cost is the dividend divided by net proceeds, with an adjustment if the shares are redeemable.
- Irredeemable: dividend / net proceeds.
- Redeemable: add the yearly amortised gain, divide by the average of redemption value and proceeds.
- No tax adjustment is made.
For Rs 100 shares issued at Rs 95 with a 10 per cent dividend, cost is 10 / 95 = 10.53 per cent. The number of shares does not matter. For redeemable shares, the gap between redemption value and net proceeds is spread over the years.
| Case | Cost |
|---|---|
| 10% preference at Rs 95 | 10 / 95 = 10.53 per cent |
| Redeemable at Rs 110, net Rs 90, 15 years, 12% | 13.33 per cent |
Test yourself: 10 per cent irredeemable preference shares of Rs 100 are issued at Rs 95. What is the cost?
- 10 per cent
- 10.53 per cent
- 10.83 per cent
- 9.5 per cent
Answer: B. 10 / 95 = 10.53 per cent.
Cost of equity: dividend growth model and CAPM
Cost of equity is the return shareholders require. It can be found by the dividend growth model or by CAPM.
- Dividend growth: Ke = D1 / P0 + g.
- With flotation cost f: Ke = D1 / (P0 x (1 - f)) + g.
- CAPM: Ke = Rf + beta x market premium.
- D1 = D0 x (1 + g).
If the dividend just paid is Rs 3 and grows 5 per cent, next year's dividend is Rs 3.15. At a price of Rs 63, yield is 5 per cent. Ke is 5 + 5 = 10 per cent. Under CAPM with Rf 6, beta 1.54 and premium 9, Ke = 6 + 13.86 = 19.86 per cent.
| Model | Formula |
|---|---|
| Dividend growth | D1 / P0 + g |
| With flotation cost | D1 / (P0 (1 - f)) + g |
| CAPM | Rf + beta x (Rm - Rf) |
| Example | 6 + 1.54 x 9 = 19.86 per cent |
Test yourself: Price is Rs 90, expected dividend Rs 4.50, growth 8 per cent. What is the required return?
- 5 per cent
- 8 per cent
- 13 per cent
- 20 per cent
Answer: C. Yield 4.50 / 90 = 5 per cent. Add growth 8 per cent to get 13 per cent.
Retained earnings and implicit cost
Retained earnings are not free. They carry an implicit cost equal to the return shareholders give up.
- Implicit cost: no cash payment, but an opportunity cost.
- Equity share capital, debentures and preference capital involve explicit payments.
- A new issue is costlier than retained earnings because of flotation costs.
If profit is kept in the firm, shareholders lose the dividend they could have invested elsewhere. That forgone return is the cost. A new issue also pays underwriting and brokerage.
| Source | Cost type |
|---|---|
| Retained earnings | Implicit |
| Equity capital | Explicit dividends |
| Debentures | Explicit interest |
| Preference capital | Explicit dividend |
Test yourself: Which source of finance has an implicit cost of capital?
- Retained earnings
- Preference capital
- Debentures
- Bank loan
Answer: A. Shareholders could have earned a return on the profit if it were paid out.
Weighted average cost of capital
The overall cost of capital is the weighted average of the cost of each source. Weights are the shares in the capital structure.
- WACC = sum of weight x cost.
- Use after-tax cost of debt when tax is given.
- With the NOI idea: overall cost = EBIT / value of the firm.
Take 20 per cent debt at 10 per cent and 80 per cent equity at 15 per cent. The weighted cost is 2 + 12 = 14 per cent. Another case: EBIT Rs 5 lakh, debt Rs 20 lakh at 10 per cent, equity cost 16 per cent. Equity value is 3 / 0.16 = Rs 18.75 lakh. Firm value is Rs 38.75 lakh. Overall cost is 5 / 38.75 = 12.9 per cent.
| Source | Weight | Cost | Product |
|---|---|---|---|
| Debt | 20 per cent | 10 per cent | 2.0 |
| Equity | 80 per cent | 15 per cent | 12.0 |
| WACC | 100 per cent | 14 per cent | 14.0 |
Test yourself: Debt is 20 per cent at 10 per cent cost. Equity is 80 per cent at 15 per cent. What is the WACC?
- 11 per cent
- 12 per cent
- 13 per cent
- 14 per cent
Answer: D. 0.2 x 10 + 0.8 x 15 = 14 per cent.
⚖️ Capital structure and leverage
How much debt a firm should use: the approaches of Durand, Modigliani and Miller, the trade-off idea, and the three kinds of leverage.
Capital structure theories
Net income, net operating income and traditional approaches
These approaches ask whether debt changes firm value. Net income says yes, net operating income says no, and the traditional approach says up to a point.
- Net income (NI): more debt raises value and lowers the overall cost.
- Net operating income (NOI): value is unaffected, because equity cost rises linearly.
- Traditional: value rises, then falls beyond an optimum.
- NI and NOI are both by David Durand.
Under NI, cost of debt and equity stay constant. Under NOI, the cost of equity rises linearly with leverage. The traditional view lets cost of equity rise slowly at first, then sharply. The firm has an optimal capital structure.
| Approach | Effect of more debt |
|---|---|
| Net income | Value rises |
| Net operating income | No change in value |
| Traditional | Rises first, then falls |
| Modigliani-Miller | Irrelevant without tax, helps with tax |
Test yourself: Under which approach does value rise first and then fall as leverage rises?
- Net income
- Traditional
- Net operating income
- MM without tax
Answer: B. Excess debt raises costs beyond the optimum.
Modigliani and Miller
Modigliani and Miller say capital structure does not matter in a perfect market. With corporate tax, debt adds value through the tax shield.
- Without tax: value is independent of leverage.
- Assumptions: perfect markets, no taxes, rational investors, 100 per cent payout, homogeneous risk, same expectations.
- With tax: levered value = unlevered value + tax rate x debt.
- Arbitrage through home-made leverage keeps values equal.
If two firms have the same earnings but different values, investors buy the cheap firm and sell the dear one, using personal borrowing. That arbitrage pushes values together. Asymmetric information is not an MM assumption.
| Version | Value of levered firm |
|---|---|
| No tax | Same as unlevered |
| With corporate tax | Unlevered + tax rate x debt |
| Example | 700 + 0.35 x 200 = 770 lakh |
Test yourself: An unlevered firm is worth Rs 700 lakh. A levered firm has debt of Rs 200 lakh. Tax is 35 per cent. What is its value under MM?
- Rs 630 lakh
- Rs 770 lakh
- Rs 700 lakh
- Rs 950 lakh
Answer: B. 700 + 0.35 x 200 = Rs 770 lakh.
Trade-off, pecking order and signalling
Newer theories explain real financing behaviour.
- Static trade-off: borrow until the tax benefit equals the cost of financial distress.
- Pecking order: internal funds first, then debt, then new equity. No target capital structure.
- Signalling: financing choices send a message to investors.
- Both pecking order and signalling rest on asymmetric information.
Managers know more than outsiders. If a firm issues new shares, investors suspect the shares are overpriced. So firms prefer internal funds. The match question pairs each theory with its key idea.
| Theory | Key idea |
|---|---|
| MM | Home-made leverage |
| Pecking order | No target, internal funds first |
| Trade-off | Costs of financial distress |
| Signalling | Asymmetric information |
Test yourself: Which theory says a firm borrows until the tax benefit equals the cost of distress?
- Static trade-off
- Net income
- Net operating income
- MM without tax
Answer: A. The trade-off theory balances tax savings with distress costs.
Debt capacity, target and optimum structure
A firm's debt capacity is the amount of debt it can carry safely. Target and optimum structures are goals.
- Debt capacity depends on the ability to generate cash flows.
- Optimum structure: the debt-equity mix that maximises firm value.
- Target structure: the debt ratio management aims to reach.
- A low debt ratio suits a new business because early earnings are uncertain.
The cash flow approach sets a tolerance limit on default risk. It estimates the cash flow distribution and finds the debt that meets the limit. A new firm should avoid heavy debt. Debt service is fixed, while its profits are low.
| Term | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Capital structure | Mix of long-term funds |
| Optimum structure | Maximises firm value |
| Target structure | Ratio management aims for |
| Cost of financial distress | Perceived costs of high debt |
Test yourself: Which of these refers to the composition of long-term funds such as debentures and equity?
- Capital structure
- Capital budgeting
- Working capital
- Cost of capital
Answer: A. This is the definition of capital structure.
Interest coverage and the cost of more debt
Interest coverage tests how safely a firm can pay interest. More debt carries both explicit and implicit costs.
- Interest coverage = EBIT / interest.
- Preference dividend is not interest.
- Implicit cost of debt: shareholders demand a higher return as financial risk rises.
With EBIT of Rs 35 lakh, a 15 per cent loan of Rs 50 lakh gives Rs 7.5 lakh of interest. A 20 per cent loan of Rs 30 lakh gives Rs 6 lakh. Deposits of Rs 15 lakh at 14 per cent give Rs 2.1 lakh. Total interest is Rs 15.6 lakh. Coverage is 35 / 15.6 = 2.24 times.
| Item | Counted in interest? |
|---|---|
| Term loan interest | Yes |
| Working capital loan interest | Yes |
| Public deposit interest | Yes |
| Preference dividend | No |
Test yourself: EBIT is Rs 35 lakh and total interest is Rs 15.6 lakh. What is the interest coverage ratio?
- 0.45
- 1.98
- 2.24
- 2.59
Answer: C. 35 / 15.6 = 2.24 times.
Leverage
Operating, financial and combined leverage
Leverage magnifies change. Operating leverage links sales to EBIT. Financial leverage links EBIT to EPS. Combined leverage links sales to EPS.
- Operating leverage = contribution / EBIT.
- Financial leverage = EBIT / EBT.
- Combined leverage = contribution / EBT = operating x financial.
- EPS = EAT / number of equity shares.
Contribution is sales minus variable cost. EBIT is contribution minus fixed cost. EBT is EBIT minus interest. Take sales Rs 40 lakh, variable cost Rs 10 lakh, fixed cost Rs 15 lakh, interest Rs 5 lakh. Contribution is 30, EBIT 15, EBT 10. Operating leverage is 2, financial 1.5, combined 3.
| Leverage | Formula |
|---|---|
| Operating | Contribution / EBIT |
| Financial | EBIT / EBT |
| Combined | Contribution / EBT |
| Combined measures | Sales and EPS |
Test yourself: Sales Rs 40 lakh, variable cost Rs 10 lakh, fixed cost Rs 15 lakh, interest Rs 5 lakh. What is combined leverage?
- 2
- 2.5
- 3
- 8
Answer: C. Contribution 30 / EBT 10 = 3.
Working out operating leverage from EBIT and fixed cost
Contribution can be found by adding fixed cost to EBIT. PBT is not needed for operating leverage.
- Contribution = EBIT + fixed cost.
- Operating leverage = (EBIT + fixed cost) / EBIT.
- PBT is used for financial leverage.
If EBIT is Rs 1,120 and fixed cost Rs 700, contribution is Rs 1,820. Operating leverage is 1,820 / 1,120 = 1.625. Financial leverage is 1,120 / 320 = 3.5.
| Item | Value |
|---|---|
| EBIT | 1,120 |
| Contribution | 1,820 |
| Operating leverage | 1.625 |
| Financial leverage | 3.5 |
Test yourself: EBIT is Rs 1,120 and fixed cost is Rs 700. What is operating leverage?
- 1.25
- 1.625
- 3.5
- 5.6
Answer: B. Contribution is 1,820, so DOL is 1,820 / 1,120 = 1.625.
💸 Dividend decision
How much profit to pay out: the theories of Walter, Gordon and Modigliani and Miller, the residual idea, and bonus and split decisions.
Dividend theories
Walter's model
Walter says the best payout depends on the firm's return on investment compared with the cost of equity.
- r above Ke (growth firm): best payout is 0 per cent.
- r equals Ke (normal firm): payout does not matter.
- r below Ke (declining firm): best payout is 100 per cent.
- Price = [D + (r / Ke) x (E - D)] / Ke.
A growth firm earns more on retained profit than shareholders could elsewhere, so it should keep all. A declining firm earns less, so it should pay out everything. A Walter question gives EPS, r, Ke and payout ratio.
| Type of firm | Condition | Best payout |
|---|---|---|
| Growth | r above Ke | 0 per cent |
| Normal | r = Ke | Any |
| Declining | r below Ke | 100 per cent |
Test yourself: According to Walter, the value of the share of a declining firm is maximum at what payout?
- 0 per cent
- 50 per cent
- 75 per cent
- 100 per cent
Answer: D. A declining firm earns less than shareholders' cost, so it should distribute everything.
Gordon's model and the bird in hand
Gordon says dividends matter. Investors prefer a sure dividend today to an uncertain capital gain later.
- Bird in hand argument: Gordon.
- Assumptions: Ke greater than growth, perpetual life, constant retention ratio, constant cost of capital, no taxes.
- Growth g = retention ratio x r.
If Ke were less than g, the price would be infinite. So Ke must be greater than g. Gordon assumes r and Ke are constant, not changing. The dividend payout ratio is the part of earnings paid to equity shareholders.
| Gordon assumption | True? |
|---|---|
| Ke greater than g | Yes |
| Perpetual life | Yes |
| Constant retention | Yes |
| r and Ke keep changing | No |
Test yourself: Which statement is an assumption of Gordon's model?
- Ke is less than growth
- No internal financing
- Constant cost of capital
- r and Ke are changing
Answer: C. Gordon assumes the cost of capital stays constant.
Modigliani and Miller on dividends
MM say dividends are irrelevant in a perfect market. The value of a firm depends on its investment policy, not on how profit is split.
- Assumptions: perfect markets, no taxes, certainty about future prices and dividends.
- The investment policy is fixed ahead of time and does not change with dividends.
- Any shortfall in funds is met by new outside financing.
When the firm pays more dividend, it raises new shares to fund the same projects. Shareholders are no better off, so the price does not change. This is the opposite of Gordon's view.
| Theory | Dividend relevant? |
|---|---|
| Walter | Yes |
| Gordon | Yes |
| Modigliani-Miller | No |
| Residual theory | Dividend is what is left over |
Test yourself: According to MM, on what does the value of a firm depend?
- Dividend payout
- Retention ratio
- Investment policy
- Stock splits
Answer: C. Dividends are irrelevant to firm value in a perfect market.
Residual theory, stock splits and payout facts
The residual theory pays dividends only from what is left after good projects are funded. A stock split cuts the price per share.
- Residual: accept all positive NPV projects, then pay what is left.
- Stock split aims: reduce market price and encourage wider ownership.
- Capital profits can be distributed as dividends if the articles allow and they are realised.
- Dividends are a cash outflow and affect liquidity.
A Rs 1,000 share split 1:10 trades near Rs 100. A lower price attracts small investors. The idea that dividends do not affect liquidity is false.
| Item | Fact |
|---|---|
| Residual theory | Dividend only from residual funds |
| Stock split | Lowers price per share |
| Bird in hand | Gordon |
| Payout ratio | Dividend / earnings |
Test yourself: What are the aims of a stock split?
- Cut dividend
- Increase the face value
- Reduce market price and encourage wider ownership
- Reduce number of shares
Answer: C. A split lowers the price, so more investors can afford the shares.
🔄 Working capital management
How a firm manages its short-term funds: the operating cycle, inventory, cash and receivables, and the financing mix.
Concepts and the cycle
Gross and net working capital
Gross working capital is the investment in current assets. Net working capital is current assets minus current liabilities.
- Negative net working capital means short-term funds have been used for fixed assets.
- The schedule of changes in working capital follows set rules.
- Higher net working capital does not always mean higher profit.
If current liabilities exceed current assets, some short-term money has paid for long-term items. In a schedule of changes: a rise in current assets raises working capital. A rise in current liabilities lowers it.
| Change | Effect on working capital |
|---|---|
| Increase in current assets | Increases |
| Increase in current liabilities | Decreases |
| Decrease in current assets | Decreases |
| Decrease in current liabilities | Increases |
Test yourself: Negative net working capital means what?
- Long-term funds used for fixed assets
- Long-term funds used for current assets
- Short-term funds used for fixed assets
- Short-term funds used for current assets
Answer: C. Current liabilities exceed current assets because short-term funds paid for fixed assets.
Operating cycle and working capital cycle
The operating cycle is the time from buying raw material to collecting cash. Subtract the payables period to get the net cycle.
- Order: raw material, work in progress, finished goods, receivables, payables deferral.
- Net cycle = gross cycle - credit from suppliers.
- A longer cycle needs more working capital.
A firm holds raw material 60 days, production takes 15, finished goods stay 30, debtors take 30 days. That is 135 days. Suppliers give 15 days of credit. The net working capital cycle is 120 days.
| Stage | Days |
|---|---|
| Raw material held | 60 |
| Production (work in progress) | 15 |
| Finished goods held | 30 |
| Credit to debtors | 30 |
| Less credit from suppliers | -15 |
Test yourself: Raw material 60 days, production 15 days, finished goods 30 days, debtors 30 days, creditors 15 days. What is the net cycle?
- 90 days
- 100 days
- 120 days
- 150 days
Answer: C. 60 + 15 + 30 + 30 - 15 = 120 days.
Determinants and financing approaches
Working capital needs depend on the nature of business and credit policy. The financing mix can be matching, conservative or aggressive.
- Determinants: nature of business, technology and manufacturing policy, credit policy, market conditions, business cycle.
- Aggressive: part of permanent working capital financed by short-term funds. Higher profit, lower liquidity.
- Conservative: more long-term funds. Higher liquidity, lower profit.
- Matching: maturity of funds matches the need. Trade-off is a compromise.
Short-term funds are cheaper but risky because they must be renewed. Long-term funds are dearer but safer. Operating cycle approach is a way to estimate the amount, not a financing mix.
| Approach | Profitability | Liquidity |
|---|---|---|
| Aggressive | Higher | Lower |
| Conservative | Lower | Higher |
| Matching | Medium | Medium |
Test yourself: In which approach is part of permanent working capital financed by short-term funds?
- Matching
- Conservative
- Traditional
- Aggressive
Answer: D. The aggressive approach uses short-term funds for part of permanent needs.
Inventory, cash and receivables
Economic order quantity and inventory control
EOQ is the order size that minimises ordering and carrying cost. Control techniques classify items.
- EOQ = root of (2 x annual usage x ordering cost / carrying cost).
- Carrying cost per unit may be a percentage of unit price.
- Orders per year = annual usage / EOQ.
- ABC classifies by value. FSND by usage rate. JIT brings stock just in time.
Always convert usage to a year first. If monthly consumption is 1,350 units, annual is 16,200. Carrying cost 30 per cent of Rs 20 is Rs 6. EOQ is the square root of (2 x 16,200 x 2,400 / 6), which is 3,600 units.
| Case | EOQ |
|---|---|
| 90,000 units, Rs 300 order, Rs 6 carrying | 3,000 units |
| 90,000 units, Rs 300 order, 20% of Rs 3 | 9,487 units |
| 16,200 units, Rs 2,400, Rs 6 | 3,600 units |
Test yourself: Annual use is 90,000 units, ordering cost Rs 300 and carrying cost Rs 6 per unit. What is the EOQ?
- 1,500 units
- 3,000 units
- 4,500 units
- 6,000 units
Answer: B. EOQ = root of (2 x 90,000 x 300 / 6) = 3,000.
Cash management models
Baumol and Miller-Orr models manage cash balances. Cash budgets can be prepared in three ways.
- Baumol model treats cash like inventory. Needs are known and steady.
- Miller-Orr model suits uncertain cash flows. It sets upper and lower limits and a return point.
- Cash budget methods: receipts and payments, adjusted net income, pro forma balance sheet.
- Financial slack is a cash reserve built from internal funds.
Baumol assumes cash needs are known with certainty. If the firm cannot forecast its needs, the Baumol assumption fails. Cash cycle is not a cash budget method.
| Model | Key feature |
|---|---|
| Baumol | Certainty, uniform payments |
| Miller-Orr | Uncertain flows, control limits |
| Cash budget methods | Receipts and payments, adjusted net income, balance sheet |
| Financial slack | Cash reserve from internal funds |
Test yourself: The Miller-Orr model is used in the management of what?
- Inventory
- Leverage
- Receivables
- Cash
Answer: D. Miller-Orr sets control limits for cash balances.
Credit policy and receivables
A firm's credit policy has three parts: terms of sale, credit analysis and collection policy.
- Terms of sale: credit period, discounts, limits.
- Credit analysis: checking customers' creditworthiness.
- Collection policy: chasing overdue accounts.
- Factoring and credit rating are not components.
Factoring is a way to finance receivables by selling them. A credit rating is an external assessment. The policy itself is made of terms, analysis and collection.
| Part | Role |
|---|---|
| Terms of sale | Credit period and discount |
| Credit analysis | Customer assessment |
| Collection policy | Chasing overdue accounts |
| Not a part | Factoring, credit rating |
Test yourself: Which of these is a component of credit policy?
- Collection policy
- Credit rating
- Factoring
- Forfaiting
Answer: A. Collection policy is one of the three parts.
📉 Risk, return, portfolio and valuation
How risk is measured and priced: CAPM, beta, diversification, APT, bond and share valuation.
Risk and return
Types of risk
Total risk splits into systematic and unsystematic risk. Business, financial and liquidity risk are more specific.
- Systematic (market) risk affects all firms and cannot be diversified.
- Unsystematic risk belongs to one firm and can be diversified.
- Business risk: fluctuation in profits. Financial risk: from capital structure.
- Liquidity risk: inability to pay dues on time.
An increase in corporate tax affects every firm, so it is systematic. A competitor entering the market hurts one firm, so it is unsystematic. Beta measures sensitivity to the market. The risk-free rate is the compensation for time.
| Risk | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Systematic | Affects all firms, market-wide |
| Unsystematic | Specific to one firm |
| Financial risk | From debt in capital structure |
| Liquidity risk | Cannot pay dues on time |
| Beta | Sensitivity to the market |
Test yourself: Which of these is an example of unsystematic risk?
- A competitor enters the market
- Increase in corporate tax rate
- Recession
- Change in interest rates
Answer: A. It affects one firm only.
CAPM, beta and real return
CAPM links expected return to systematic risk. Real return removes inflation.
- Expected return = Rf + beta x (Rm - Rf).
- Beta is influenced by portfolio size, estimation period, trading volume and return interval.
- Real return = (1 + nominal) / (1 + inflation) - 1.
With Rf 6, beta 1.5 and market return 10, the premium is 4. Expected return is 6 + 1.5 x 4 = 12 per cent. With a nominal return of 12.5 and inflation of 3.5, the real return is 1.125 / 1.035 - 1 = 8.70 per cent. The shortcut 9 per cent is only an approximation.
| Item | Formula |
|---|---|
| CAPM | Rf + beta x (Rm - Rf) |
| Real return | (1 + nominal) / (1 + inflation) - 1 |
| Bond price vs interest rate | Move in opposite directions |
Test yourself: Rf is 6 per cent, beta 1.5, market return 10 per cent. What is the CAPM return?
- 12 per cent
- 15 per cent
- 16 per cent
- 17.5 per cent
Answer: A. 6 + 1.5 x (10 - 6) = 12 per cent.
Bond prices and interest rates
Bond prices and interest rates move in opposite directions. Long-term bonds are more sensitive.
- When rates rise, bond prices fall.
- When rates fall, bond prices rise.
- Coupon rate = annual coupon / face value.
- Yield to maturity is the market rate required on the bond.
A long-term government bond fixes its coupon. If market rates rise, buyers will pay less for the old coupon. So the price falls. That is interest rate risk.
| Term | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Coupon rate | Annual coupon / face value |
| Current yield | Annual coupon / bond price |
| Yield to maturity | Market rate required on the bond |
| Interest rate risk | Price risk from rate changes |
Test yourself: When market interest rates rise, what happens to existing bond prices?
- They rise
- They stay the same
- They fall
- They double
Answer: C. A fixed coupon is less attractive when rates are higher.
Portfolio management
Diversification and portfolio risk
Diversification reduces unsystematic risk. The benefit depends on the correlation between securities.
- Perfect positive correlation: no risk reduction.
- Perfect negative correlation: risk can be reduced to zero.
- Diversification cannot remove market (systematic) risk.
- The portfolio approach aims at risk optimisation.
If two securities move together exactly, a portfolio of them is just an average. If they move in opposite directions, the ups and downs cancel. The portfolio is judged as a whole, so the aim is the best risk-return trade-off.
| Correlation | Diversification benefit |
|---|---|
| +1 | None |
| Partial | Some |
| -1 | Risk can fall to zero |
Test yourself: Portfolio risk can be minimised by combining securities with what correlation?
- Perfect negative
- Perfect positive
- Partial positive
- Zero return
Answer: A. Perfect negative correlation can bring risk to zero.
Total return and international diversification
Total return is income plus capital gain over the purchase price. International diversification has barriers.
- Total return = (periodic receipts + capital gains) / purchase price.
- Barriers: exchange rate movements, market frictions, price manipulation, unequal information.
- A foreign equity should offer a better return to justify extra risks.
Buy at Rs 100, get Rs 5 dividend, sell at Rs 110. Total return is (5 + 10) / 100 = 15 per cent. The base is always the purchase price.
| Part | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Periodic receipts | Dividends or interest |
| Capital gain | Selling price - purchase price |
| Base | Purchase price |
Test yourself: Total return on a security is (periodic receipts + capital gains) divided by what?
- Face value
- Current market price
- Selling price
- Purchase price
Answer: D. Return is measured on the amount invested.
Arbitrage pricing theory
APT says expected return depends on several macroeconomic factors, not on market beta alone.
- Identify the macroeconomic factors.
- Estimate the risk premium for each factor.
- Estimate each factor sensitivity.
Factors can be inflation, GDP growth and interest rates. Each has a premium and the security has a sensitivity to each. APT is built on the idea that arbitrage removes mispricing.
| Order | Step |
|---|---|
| 1 | Identify macroeconomic factors |
| 2 | Estimate the risk premium for each |
| 3 | Estimate the factor sensitivities |
Test yourself: What is the first step in APT?
- Identify macroeconomic factors
- Estimate premiums
- Estimate sensitivities
- Compute beta
Answer: A. The factors come first.
Valuation
Earnings valuation ratios and growth opportunities
Valuation ratios compare price with earnings or book value. Price can be split into no-growth value plus growth value.
- P/E = price / EPS. Earnings yield = EPS / price.
- P/B = price / net worth per share. Relative P/E = firm P/E / index P/E.
- Price = EPS / capitalisation rate + PVGO.
If price is Rs 80 and the present value of growth opportunities is Rs 20, the no-growth part is Rs 60. At a 15 per cent capitalisation rate, EPS is 60 x 0.15 = Rs 9.
| Ratio | Formula |
|---|---|
| P/E | Price / EPS |
| Earnings yield | EPS / price |
| Price-book | Price / net worth per share |
| Relative P/E | Firm P/E / index P/E |
Test yourself: Price is Rs 80, PVGO is Rs 20, capitalisation rate is 15 per cent. What is EPS?
- Rs 3
- Rs 9
- Rs 12
- Rs 20
Answer: B. No-growth value is Rs 60. EPS is 60 x 0.15 = Rs 9.
Risk management process
Risk management follows a logical order, from identifying the risk to getting feedback.
- Identify the risk variable.
- Determine frequency and severity.
- Select a risk model.
- Apply a risk instrument, then give feedback.
A firm asks what can go wrong, how often and how badly, which model to use, and then buys insurance or hedges. Feedback closes the loop.
| Order | Step |
|---|---|
| 1 | Identify the risk variable |
| 2 | Frequency and severity |
| 3 | Choose risk model |
| 4 and 5 | Apply instrument, then feedback |
Test yourself: What is the first step in the risk management process?
- Identify the risk variable
- Apply an instrument
- Select a model
- Give feedback
Answer: A. Start by asking what can go wrong.
🌐 Derivatives, leasing, mergers and international finance
Options and other derivatives, lease types, mergers and takeover defences, and how a firm hedges currency risk.
Derivatives and leasing
Options: calls, puts and terms
A call option gives the right to buy at a fixed price. A put option gives the right to sell at a fixed price.
- Call: right to buy. Put: right to sell.
- European option: exercised only at maturity. American: any time up to maturity.
- Option premium: paid by the buyer to the seller upfront.
- In-the-money: immediate exercise has positive value.
A question may swap the definitions of call and put. Currency option price depends on the spot rate, the exercise rate, the foreign risk-free rate and time to expiry. Black-Scholes assumes that underlying prices are log-normally distributed.
| Term | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Call option | Right to buy |
| Put option | Right to sell |
| European option | Exercised only on maturity date |
| Option premium | Price paid upfront by the buyer |
Test yourself: A right to sell a fixed amount of stock at a stated price on or before a set date is called what?
- Call option
- Swap
- Forward
- Put option
Answer: D. A put option is the right to sell.
Uses and advantages of derivatives
Derivatives are used by hedgers, speculators and arbitrageurs. They have advantages and a danger.
- Hedgers: commercial producers who protect against price change.
- Arbitrageurs: earn riskless profit.
- Advantages: liquidity, insurance against risk, reduced price volatility.
- Leverage increases risk, so it is not an advantage.
Commodity futures began in Osaka in Japan. Financial derivatives came to India to manage the risk from greater volatility. Derivatives let people control a large position with little money. But losses are magnified as well.
| Participant | Role |
|---|---|
| Hedger | Protects against price risk |
| Speculator | Takes risk for profit |
| Arbitrageur | Earns riskless profit |
Test yourself: Which of these is NOT an advantage of the derivatives market?
- Enhanced liquidity
- Leveraging increases risk
- A form of insurance against risk
- Reduced price volatility
Answer: B. Leverage magnifies losses as well as gains.
Leasing
Types of lease and lease versus buy
A lease gives the use of an asset for rent. Types differ by who bears the risks and by how many parties are involved.
- Finance lease: lessor transfers substantially all risks and rewards.
- Operating lease: lessor keeps them.
- Sale and lease back: sell an asset and lease it back.
- Leveraged lease: three parties, with a financier.
A sale and lease back suits a firm with a liquidity crisis. It turns a fixed asset into cash and the firm keeps using it. A firm buys when the equivalent annual cost of owning is less than the best lease rate. The tax shield on depreciation and interest matters to both lessor and lessee.
| Lease | Feature |
|---|---|
| Finance lease | Risks and rewards pass to lessee |
| Operating lease | Ownership risk stays with lessor |
| Sale and lease back | Sell and lease back the same asset |
| Leveraged lease | Lessor, lessee and financier |
Test yourself: A sale and lease back arrangement is most suitable for a lessee with what?
- Liquidity crisis
- Surplus funds
- High profit
- Nil profit
Answer: A. It converts a fixed asset into cash while still using it.
Mergers and international finance
Mergers and takeover defences
Some mergers are arranged under supervision. Targets use defence strategies to resist hostile takeovers.
- Arranged merger: under BIFR supervision, a weak firm merged into a healthy one.
- Pacman defence: the target makes a counter bid for the bidder's shares.
- Crown jewels: the most valuable segments, wanted by the acquirer.
- White knight: a friendly third party who helps the target.
Cash cows are segments with high market share in slow-growth markets. Greenmail and poison pill are other defences. Poison pill makes the target less attractive. Greenmail buys back the raider's shares at a premium.
| Term | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Arranged merger | Under BIFR supervision |
| Pacman defence | Counter bid for bidder's shares |
| Crown jewels | Most valuable assets |
| White knight | Friendly rescuer |
Test yourself: When the target makes a counter bid for the bidder's stock, the strategy is what?
- Greenmail
- Poison pill
- Pacman defence
- Golden parachute
Answer: C. In the Pacman defence the target tries to buy the bidder.
Hedging currency risk and cross-listing
Firms hedge currency exposure with operational and financial techniques. Cross-listing widens the investor base.
- Operational techniques: leading and lagging.
- Financial hedge: forward, money market, swap.
- A currency swap hedges foreign exchange risk.
- Cross-listing can lower the cost of capital.
Leading and lagging change the timing of foreign currency flows and do not need a contract. Pooling holds group cash centrally. Netting offsets receivables against payables. Cross-listing expands the investor base, improves liquidity and can raise the share price.
| Technique | Type |
|---|---|
| Leading and lagging | Operational |
| Forward contract | Financial |
| Money market hedge | Financial |
| Currency swap | Financial hedge |
Test yourself: Which of these is an operational technique of hedging transaction exposure?
- Leading and lagging
- Forward contract
- Swap
- Money market hedge
Answer: A. Leading and lagging change timing, not contracts.
Practise Business Finance
All 180 past questions in this unit, with full explanations.
Practise this unit